The Official Forum  

Go Back   The Official Forum > Baseball
Register FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

 
 
LinkBack Thread Tools Rate Thread Display Modes
Prev Previous Post   Next Post Next
  #8 (permalink)  
Old Sun Mar 16, 2003, 08:50pm
Official Forum Member
 
Join Date: Jan 2001
Location: Germantown, TN (east of Memphis)
Posts: 783
Quote:
Originally posted by DownTownTonyBrown
Dave,

I'm not sure I understand your reasoning. You don't question the correctness of answer

a. The ball is immediately dead

Yet you question the correctness of answer

i. B1 is awarded first base

The ball is dead due to the interference (and generally this call would be made during the process of fielding, before F6 has completed fielding the ball). B1 has made a hit you must do something with him... put him on 1st.
I agree that the ball is immediately dead as a result of the interference. But, under FED rules, my understanding is that the umpire still had the latitude to call B1 out if he thought that that would have been the logical outcome of the play. I'm just asking.

David Emerling
Memphis, TN
Reply With Quote
 

Bookmarks


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is On
Trackbacks are On
Pingbacks are On
Refbacks are On



All times are GMT -5. The time now is 05:18am.



Search Engine Friendly URLs by vBSEO 3.3.0 RC1