Quote:
Originally posted by DownTownTonyBrown
Dave,
I'm not sure I understand your reasoning. You don't question the correctness of answer
a. The ball is immediately dead
Yet you question the correctness of answer
i. B1 is awarded first base
The ball is dead due to the interference (and generally this call would be made during the process of fielding, before F6 has completed fielding the ball). B1 has made a hit you must do something with him... put him on 1st.
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I agree that the ball is immediately dead as a result of the interference. But, under FED rules, my understanding is that the umpire still had the latitude to call B1 out if he thought that that would have been the logical outcome of the play. I'm just asking.
David Emerling
Memphis, TN