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David:
I do not umpire under FED code, but I will take a guess, especially since the answer is already given by the practice quiz. I believe that we (umpires) can't assume that this BR would have been thrown out, regardless of the interference. Suppose he made a bad throw and it went out of play into the stands? We can't assume the out. But even more to the point, this is NOT a double play situation (as in a force play, I mean). In the possible double play situation where you call the BR out also, the umpire must judge that the interference was intentional (OBR). Why? I think it is because we can't assume the successful double play in ordinary play (without the intentional interference). If I am offtrack, perhaps a FED umpire can add insight.
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