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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue May 04, 2010, 09:05am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dash_riprock View Post
Generally, if it's a legal slide, contact associated with the slide is also legal.
It's still an out for interfereing with the fielder making an initial play on the ball. That has nothing to do with a legal or illegal slide.
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Old Tue May 04, 2010, 10:31am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
It's still an out for interfereing with the fielder making an initial play on the ball. That has nothing to do with a legal or illegal slide.
Right you are. It's a batted ball.
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Old Tue May 04, 2010, 12:11pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
It's still an out for interfereing with the fielder making an initial play on the ball. That has nothing to do with a legal or illegal slide.
Since home plate is in fair territory, and the ball settles on the plate about the same time runner is sliding into home, would you still make the same call? It would seem something's gotta give somewhere.
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Old Tue May 04, 2010, 01:18pm
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Originally Posted by Steven Tyler View Post
Since home plate is in fair territory, and the ball settles on the plate about the same time runner is sliding into home, would you still make the same call? It would seem something's gotta give somewhere.
Play: R1. bouncer up the middle. R1 slides (legally) into second but makes contact with F4 who is about to field the ball. The ball bounces into center field.

I can't imagine any of us having anything other than interference here.

It's the same in the OP. The defense has an absolute entitlement to an unhindered opportunity to field the batted ball. Intent doesn't matter. The fact that the runner was "doing what he was supposed to" doesn't matter.
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Old Wed May 05, 2010, 09:11pm
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...to change the play slightly - what if R3 gets hit with the bunt (a) before or (b) after he touches the plate?
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Old Thu May 06, 2010, 01:59am
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Originally Posted by bossman72 View Post
...to change the play slightly - what if R3 gets hit with the bunt (a) before or (b) after he touches the plate?
(a) Ball is dead. R3 out for interference. Runners return. BR gets 1st base.

(b) How is this even possible? Wouldn't he be into foul territory by that time?
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Old Thu May 06, 2010, 06:45am
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Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve View Post
(b) How is this even possible? Wouldn't he be into foul territory by that time?
Not if he's touching the plate when the ball hits him. But that's a TWP.
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Old Thu May 06, 2010, 09:49am
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Originally Posted by bossman72 View Post
...to change the play slightly - what if R3 gets hit with the bunt (a) before or (b) after he touches the plate?
(a) agree with Steve -- interference on R3.

(b) I'd apply the OBR "unintentional interference by a person authorized to be on the field" and play on.
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Mon May 10, 2010, 11:24pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
Play: R1. bouncer up the middle. R1 slides (legally) into second but makes contact with F4 who is about to field the ball. The ball bounces into center field.

I can't imagine any of us having anything other than interference here.

It's the same in the OP. The defense has an absolute entitlement to an unhindered opportunity to field the batted ball. Intent doesn't matter. The fact that the runner was "doing what he was supposed to" doesn't matter.
I thought as much.

That's a big 10-4.

Catch you on the flip side.
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