What do you have: Squeeze?

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

Generally, if it's a legal slide, contact associated with the slide is also legal.

It's still an out for interfereing with the fielder making an initial play on the ball. That has nothing to do with a legal or illegal slide.

[dash_riprock]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

It's still an out for interfereing with the fielder making an initial play on the ball. That has nothing to do with a legal or illegal slide.

Right you are. It's a batted ball.

[Steven Tyler]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

It's still an out for interfereing with the fielder making an initial play on the ball. That has nothing to do with a legal or illegal slide.

Since home plate is in fair territory, and the ball settles on the plate about the same time runner is sliding into home, would you still make the same call? It would seem something's gotta give somewhere.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Steven Tyler

Since home plate is in fair territory, and the ball settles on the plate about the same time runner is sliding into home, would you still make the same call? It would seem something's gotta give somewhere.

Play: R1. bouncer up the middle. R1 slides (legally) into second but makes contact with F4 who is about to field the ball. The ball bounces into center field.

I can't imagine any of us having anything other than interference here.

It's the same in the OP. The defense has an absolute entitlement to an unhindered opportunity to field the batted ball. Intent doesn't matter. The fact that the runner was "doing what he was supposed to" doesn't matter.

[bossman72]

...to change the play slightly - what if R3 gets hit with the bunt (a) before or (b) after he touches the plate?

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by bossman72

...to change the play slightly - what if R3 gets hit with the bunt (a) before or (b) after he touches the plate?

(a) Ball is dead. R3 out for interference. Runners return. BR gets 1st base.

(b) How is this even possible? Wouldn't he be into foul territory by that time?

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

(b) How is this even possible? Wouldn't he be into foul territory by that time?

Not if he's touching the plate when the ball hits him. But that's a TWP.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by bossman72

...to change the play slightly - what if R3 gets hit with the bunt (a) before or (b) after he touches the plate?

(a) agree with Steve -- interference on R3.

(b) I'd apply the OBR "unintentional interference by a person authorized to be on the field" and play on.

[Steven Tyler]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

Play: R1. bouncer up the middle. R1 slides (legally) into second but makes contact with F4 who is about to field the ball. The ball bounces into center field.

I can't imagine any of us having anything other than interference here.

It's the same in the OP. The defense has an absolute entitlement to an unhindered opportunity to field the batted ball. Intent doesn't matter. The fact that the runner was "doing what he was supposed to" doesn't matter.

I thought as much.

That's a big 10-4.

Catch you on the flip side.