What do you have: Squeeze?
 

This question/situation happened in FED game but I believe that what I would have as the the ruling is applicable to all codes. I didn't witness the play, it was brought to my attention by a newer umpire that had it in one of his games.


(A) R3, 0-1 outs. R3 breaks for home on the pitch, Batter squares for a squeeze bunt. Ball is bunted fair just out in front of the plate (dirt circle area, F2 would have a play on the ball). B/R clears the area on his way to first. F2 oblivious to the squeeze portion of the play is slow to react to the bunt and goes out to field the ball. R3 who breaks on the pitch comes home and touches the plate, and while on the plate makes contact with F2 (no malicious). B/R safe at first, late throw or no throw.

(B) Same play, but contact is made before runner touces the plate.



I wanted to ask because what I had and what a fellow friend of mind had are different.

(a) is interference by a retired runner. Run scores.

(b) is interference by a runner. R3 out, BR to first.

+1

(a) minor point, but runner was not retired if he scored. What am I missing here?

Did the runner slide legally?

You're missing 2-30-3, "Retired runner":

"A retired runner is a player of the team at bat who has been put out,
or who has scored and is still in live-ball area."

Good question. If the contact was the result of a legal slide, I'd have to change my answer.

From the description, I assumed that R3 ran across the plate and bumped F2.

Contact was made standing up

What's different if it's a legal or illegal slide.


BTW, I had what everyone else is saying with the interference, call out the B/R

Generally, if it's a legal slide, contact associated with the slide is also legal.

In HS, a slide is legal if one side of the runner is on the ground, his other foot is not raised above the fielder's knee, the slide is within reach of the base by a hand or foot, and the runner does not go beyond the base. On a force play, the slide must be in a direct line between the two bases (directly into the base).

It's still an out for interfereing with the fielder making an initial play on the ball. That has nothing to do with a legal or illegal slide.

Right you are. It's a batted ball.

Since home plate is in fair territory, and the ball settles on the plate about the same time runner is sliding into home, would you still make the same call? It would seem something's gotta give somewhere.

Play: R1. bouncer up the middle. R1 slides (legally) into second but makes contact with F4 who is about to field the ball. The ball bounces into center field.

I can't imagine any of us having anything other than interference here.

It's the same in the OP. The defense has an absolute entitlement to an unhindered opportunity to field the batted ball. Intent doesn't matter. The fact that the runner was "doing what he was supposed to" doesn't matter.

...to change the play slightly - what if R3 gets hit with the bunt (a) before or (b) after he touches the plate?

(a) Ball is dead. R3 out for interference. Runners return. BR gets 1st base.

(b) How is this even possible? Wouldn't he be into foul territory by that time?:confused: