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Thanks to all who chose to respond.
My post here was prompted by a discussion on another thread with a gentleman who was certain that it was grounds for forfeit to not have properly marked balls available. I had never heard that before and disagreed. I was curious how it was handled in different parts of the country. Between the two threads, 20 different posters took a position (including me). 4 said you can't play without them. Only one that it was grounds for a forfeit. The other 3 said they'd have/find a way to get marked balls. Everybody else said "play", with some suggesting "file a report". 2 of the "don't play" umpires are from the LA area, &, I suspect, may belong to the same association. Another from NC & one from MN. The FED Interpretation I posted above I found in the BRD. The BRD references the NFHS News, 3/99 #20. Apparently, this was in anticipation of the "Mark" requirement entering the rule book in 2000. Sounds to me like the "official" FED position is, play the game, report it. Makes perfect sense to me. JM
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