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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Sat Aug 29, 2009, 11:11pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Kevin Finnerty View Post
And you're kidding about the play too, right? The umpire should still call time and enforce the balk? Yeah? The guy stole home and nothing else happened. How can a balk be called, scored or whatever you do or say? We're talking about this one play with one runner on third who stole home before anything could happen or be called. It's about this one play and not a bunch of convoluted scenarios.
I didn't realize nick was baseball slang. It is not listed in this baseball slang dictionary Baseball Slang Dictionary From I-O: More Baseball Slang Terms From 'In the Hole' to 'Outpitch' | Suite101.com

Just because R3 touches the plate before the pitch is released does not mean he has stolen the base. If the pitch is batted foul it is not a stolen base. If the pitch is strike 3 with 2 outs then it is not a stolen base.

A balk is somewhat different as you could have a balk and a stolen base on the same play. But yes, the umpire should call time and enforce the balk. R3 is sliding in as F1 stops his motion. The guy did not steal third base before anything else happened as you claimed. He was on third base at the time of the pitch. You seed to be thinking that noting happened before he stole the base. But that is not what happened; the pitcher started his motion.
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Old Sat Aug 29, 2009, 11:36pm
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Originally Posted by LDUB View Post
I didn't realize nick was baseball slang. It is not listed in this baseball slang dictionary Baseball Slang Dictionary From I-O: More Baseball Slang Terms From 'In the Hole' to 'Outpitch' | Suite101.com
It's in my baseball lexicon, and others', and you are really reaching. Don't pull a muscle.

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Originally Posted by LDUB View Post
Just because R3 touches the plate before the pitch is released does not mean he has stolen the base. If the pitch is batted foul it is not a stolen base. If the pitch is strike 3 with 2 outs then it is not a stolen base.

A balk is somewhat different as you could have a balk and a stolen base on the same play. But yes, the umpire should call time and enforce the balk. R3 is sliding in as F1 stops his motion. The guy did not steal third base before anything else happened as you claimed. He was on third base at the time of the pitch. You seed to be thinking that noting happened before he stole the base. But that is not what happened; the pitcher started his motion.
I never said he stole third base ... never. I said he stole home, which he did. There was no balk, there was no pitch, there was no other runner on, there weren't two strikes on the batter, the runner started at third, and he stole home before anything else happened.

Why, according to Official Baseball Rules, would an umpire call a balk on this play?

Last edited by Kevin Finnerty; Sat Aug 29, 2009 at 11:39pm.
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Old Sat Aug 29, 2009, 11:43pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Kevin Finnerty View Post

Why, according to Official Baseball Rules, would an umpire call a balk on this play?
8.05a. I don't really care, but you asked. He's still a runner until he has scored, and he hasn't scored until the play is completed, as mentioned above. So he has violated 8.05a.

As soon as he fails to pitch, "TIME". Score the runner. Scored on the balk, officially speaking.

Last edited by TussAgee11; Sat Aug 29, 2009 at 11:49pm.
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Old Sat Aug 29, 2009, 11:37pm
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Technically speaking it should have been a balk, no SB. And the official box score be damned

From a fan's perspective, a great play by the base runner. Something to get excited about, and not worth nitpicking over like SDS said.
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Old Sat Aug 29, 2009, 11:46pm
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Okay, Luke...what is the correct slang term for the official scorer charging a pitcher with an infraction? I couldn't find a listing in the Baseball Slang Dictionary. Aren't we allowed to use our own slang terms for anything we choose, including baseball? I'll bet you any amount of money that I know baseball slang terms that aren't listed in this dictionary.

Try to follow along: Kevin wasn't the official scorer that day. The official scorer did not charge a balk, and he did credit Cabrera with a stolen base. Kevin was at the game, but not the official scorer. The umpires did not call a balk on the play, whether correctly or incorrectly, otherwise the official scorer would have entered it that way in the scorebook, wouldn't he? So, why in the hell is everyone holding Kevin accountable for the decisions of both the umpires and the official scorer, when he is merely telling you what happened on the play, which resulted in Billingsley not completing his delivery after seeing Cabrera slide in safely?
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Old Sat Aug 29, 2009, 11:51pm
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I just broke my chair.
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Old Sun Aug 30, 2009, 03:02pm
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Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve View Post
So, why in the hell is everyone holding Kevin accountable for the decisions of both the umpires and the official scorer, when he is merely telling you what happened on the play, which resulted in Billingsley not completing his delivery after seeing Cabrera slide in safely?
Because he has said, multiple times, that he agrees with the call on the field that it should not be a balk.

Quote:
Originally Posted by TussAgee11 View Post
Technically speaking it should have been a balk, no SB. And the official box score be damned
Even though it was a balk it would probably be scored as a stolen base also. Just because there is a balk does not mean that a runner cannot steal a base.
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Old Sun Aug 30, 2009, 04:58pm
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Originally Posted by LDUB View Post
Because he has said, multiple times, that he agrees with the call on the field that it should not be a balk.
I agree also. The pitcher did not stop his motion until the runner had touched home plate. No runners on base at that time, so nobody on base to award a base on a balk, which is the purpose of the balk rule, to reward the offense for a pitcher illegally deceiving a runner. And regardless of whether Kevin agreed with the call or not, it was the call that was made. Don't believe it? Look in the scorebook.


Quote:
Originally Posted by LDUB View Post
Even though it was a balk it would probably be scored as a stolen base also. Just because there is a balk does not mean that a runner cannot steal a base.
This is also true, but it wasn't a balk because it wasn't called. "It ain't nothin' till I call it." - Bill Klem.
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Old Mon Aug 31, 2009, 09:37pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve View Post
Try to follow along: Kevin wasn't the official scorer that day. The official scorer did not charge a balk, and he did credit Cabrera with a stolen base. Kevin was at the game, but not the official scorer.
I never accused the Official Scorer of screwing up. I simply stated that if the pitcher began his pitching motion and then stopped, it's a balk. I couldn't care less what the umpires called or didn't call, and I doubt an Official Scorer could go against what's called on the field ("Hmm. That was technically a balk, but the umpires didn't call it. I'll write it in as one anyway.").

I'm done talking about it, simply because the topic's gone far away from my original argument.
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Old Mon Aug 31, 2009, 10:04pm
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Originally Posted by yawetag View Post
I doubt an Official Scorer could go against what's called on the field ("Hmm. That was technically a balk, but the umpires didn't call it. I'll write it in as one anyway.").
That's because the official scorer can't do that. OBR 10.01b (1). "The official scorer shall not make any decision that conflicts with an umpire's decision." If the umpire decided, right or wrong, it was not a balk, the official scorer can't decide to charge a balk anyway.
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