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Old Sun Aug 16, 2009, 07:09pm
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Obviously, as JM pointed out, a safe play at the plate followed by runners lane INT, run scores because of intervening play.

But would a play at another base qualify as intervening?

1) Intervening play on a R1 or R2
2) R3 touches home
3) Runner's lane interference

...or...

1) R3 touches home
2) Intervening play on another runner
3) Runner's lane interference

Run is good on situation 2 for sure, but situation 1? The wording JM provided would say yes, all runners get TOI once any intervening play takes place (otherwise we'd have to start forcing runners along in certain situations). I'm inclined to agree, but can't find a rule citation.
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Old Sun Aug 16, 2009, 10:50pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by TussAgee11 View Post
Obviously, as JM pointed out, a safe play at the plate followed by runners lane INT, run scores because of intervening play.

But would a play at another base qualify as intervening?

1) Intervening play on a R1 or R2
2) R3 touches home
3) Runner's lane interference

...or...

1) R3 touches home
2) Intervening play on another runner
3) Runner's lane interference

Run is good on situation 2 for sure, but situation 1? The wording JM provided would say yes, all runners get TOI once any intervening play takes place (otherwise we'd have to start forcing runners along in certain situations). I'm inclined to agree, but can't find a rule citation.
How could you have an intervening play at any base but home? If the throw to 1B comes from anywhere but the vicinity of home, you cannot have runner's lane interference.
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