Rule 6.05 (k)

[rbmartin]

Having trouble finding this in rulebook:
When calling out a batter/runner via rule 6.05(k), what do you do with runners on other bases?

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by rbmartin

Having trouble finding this in rulebook:
When calling out a batter/runner via rule 6.05(k), what do you do with runners on other bases?

6.05(k) is not listed in the index of OBR as an example of interference per se. 6.05 (h), (j), (m) and (n) are the only official offensive interference references given for 6.05.

I believe that the play has no effect on the other runners, and only the batter is called out.

In the MLBUM, it says the following concerning interference, but doesn't address this situation specifically, so I don't believe it applies:

If the umpire declares the batter, batter-runner, or a runner out for interference, all other runners shall return to the last base that was, in the judgment of the umpire, legally touched at the time of the interference unless otherwise provided by the Official Baseball Rules.

Somebody correct me if I'm wrong.

[johnnyg08]

I think you're right Steve. I was reading about an intervening play not straight up runner's lane INT. Runners return to TOP base if B/R does not reach 1B

[UmpJM]

rbmartin,

On a running lane interference call, the BR is out, and any other runners return to their TOP base - UNLESS, there was an "interving play" prior to the runnig lane interference, in which case other runners are returned to their TOI base.

JM

[TussAgee11]

Obviously, as JM pointed out, a safe play at the plate followed by runners lane INT, run scores because of intervening play.

But would a play at another base qualify as intervening?

1) Intervening play on a R1 or R2
2) R3 touches home
3) Runner's lane interference

...or...

1) R3 touches home
2) Intervening play on another runner
3) Runner's lane interference

Run is good on situation 2 for sure, but situation 1? The wording JM provided would say yes, all runners get TOI once any intervening play takes place (otherwise we'd have to start forcing runners along in certain situations). I'm inclined to agree, but can't find a rule citation.

[Matt]

Originally Posted by TussAgee11

Obviously, as JM pointed out, a safe play at the plate followed by runners lane INT, run scores because of intervening play.

But would a play at another base qualify as intervening?

1) Intervening play on a R1 or R2
2) R3 touches home
3) Runner's lane interference

...or...

1) R3 touches home
2) Intervening play on another runner
3) Runner's lane interference

Run is good on situation 2 for sure, but situation 1? The wording JM provided would say yes, all runners get TOI once any intervening play takes place (otherwise we'd have to start forcing runners along in certain situations). I'm inclined to agree, but can't find a rule citation.

How could you have an intervening play at any base but home? If the throw to 1B comes from anywhere but the vicinity of home, you cannot have runner's lane interference.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

rbmartin,

On a running lane interference call, the BR is out, and any other runners return to their TOP base - UNLESS, there was an "interving play" prior to the runnig lane interference, in which case other runners are returned to their TOI base.

JM

Could you give me the rule reference for this interp please?

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

Could you give me the rule reference for this interp please?

mlbum p 52 Titled Interference w/ Intervening Play.

Rule: 6.05k and probably somewhere in Rule 7 would be my guess.

[johnnyg08]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

rbmartin,

On a running lane interference call, the BR is out, and any other runners return to their TOP base - UNLESS, there was an "interving play" prior to the runnig lane interference, in which case other runners are returned to their TOI base.

JM

w/ less than 2 outs, the run could possibly score though on an intervening play

[rbmartin]

Rule 6.05(k) listed on MLB.com contains the phrase "in which case the ball is dead" while the rule listed at baseball-almanac.com does not.

This came up in a game I was a substitute umpire for this weekend but luckily no runners on. I just want to be prepared for next time just in case.