Base Hit or Not?

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by zm1283

Well, seeing that he didn't reach base, I don't know how that would be a base hit.

My logic was that there is no "choice" in the outfielder's decision. If it's a clean single, there is no play at first on the hitter, so he only has a play at second. Usually a FC requires some sort of choice made by the defense, but in this situation the fielder has no choice on which player to try to get out.

Why do you seem so angry about little stuff like this? Deep breath.....

You don't need logic, you need the scoring rules.

10.05
(b) The official scorer shall not credit a base hit when a:
(1) runner is forced out by a batted ball, or would have been forced out except for a fielding error;
(2) batter apparently hits safely and a runner who is forced to advance by reason of the batter becoming a runner fails to touch the first base to which such runner is advancing and is called out on appeal. The official scorer shall charge the batter with a time at bat but no hit;

People get upset when a poster continues to argue against a black-and-white-by-the-rules ruling.