Umpire Obstruction?

[Rog]

NFHS Rule # 5-1-1-h
the ball is DEAD "immediately" ( . )


While I've seen answers potential to OBR, the game was played per Fed rule.
All of us know the umpire should not have accepted the live ball from the catcher. However, it occurred, so at this point I would have to apply judgment regarding the advance of R3.

IMO, the accepting of the ball is a decision by the umpire which causes the ball to become dead (per Fed rule). This decision may have put either the offense or the defense at a disadvantage. Fed rule 10-2-3L also allows PU to rectify any situation where on official's reversed decision puts a team at a disadvantage.

If R3, in the judgment of the umpires, would have scored safely despite the umpire accepting the live ball, then score the run. The catcher should have also known there were only 2 outs, and should have been making the play on R3.

If, in the judgment of the umpires, the runner would not have made it safely to score, then the officials should declare him out. This would be the least likely outcome of this play as the defense will receive little benefit of doubt regarding the action. I would only rule this if I were certain R3 was toast at the plate. F2 should have played on the advancing R3 rather than take action to allow the ball to become dead. If he felt the 3rd out had occurred, he may have just as likely rolled the ball toward the rubber after the strikeout.

If, in the judgment of the umpires, the runner broke to score only after the umpire accepted the ball, then the play is nullified by sending R3 back to 3B.

That is how I would rule per Fed rule.
The umpire put himself in this predicament by accepting the live ball, and it’s his job to make the ruling. In making the ruling here, it’s best to make the ruling as you can best support it by Fed rule. There is going to be a disgruntled team after the ruling of this play no matter what he rules, so he might as well get it right and take his lumps for his brain fart.


Just my opinion,

Freix
[/B][/QUOTE]

[Bfair]

Originally posted by Rog
NFHS Rule # 5-1-1-h
the ball is DEAD "immediately" ( . )

I am well aware of the rule, Rog. The point I'm making is that it is an umpire's decision to handle a live ball, thus ending play no different than it's an umpire's decision to verbally call time. I had a similar instance occur where a pitcher flipped a ball to me while a runner was attempting to continue his advance from 1st to 3rd after a bunt. I backed off the ball, allowing it to roll to the screen. The runner saw the ball go to the screen and advanced home on the pitcher's brain fart.

Take this play:

R2 is scoring uncontested, is 10 ft. from the plate, and your partner calls time because F4, holding the ball he just received from F8 after a hit, had requested time?

While it's not your call, you are likely to have a discussion with BU regarding the incident. Afterall, you are responsible as PU for knowing whether R2 scores before the ball became dead.

Do you send the runner back to 3B?.........
.....or would you recommend to BU that his decision of calling time be reversed to allow the runner to score?
I think I'd score the run, especially under Fed rule.

I see this situation as no different.
By rule, the ball becomes dead because PU made the decision to handle it.
If R3 was sliding in at the time and F2 had no chance of tagging him since he was handing PU the ball, then score the run. F2 was making no effort to tag R3.

I will agree, however, if it's feasibly possibly to say R3 didn't start his advance until after F2 handed PU the ball, that would be the avenue of least resistance---even if the umps needed to stretch their judgment decision on that one.

So, when your partner calls time, do you send the runner back to 3B?
Or do you let him score?


Freix

[Rog]

For the sake of the original question -
NFHS 2002 Rules Book
page 36
Dead Ball Table
#17
5-5-1-h
Awards or penalties
Runners return to bases they had reach or passed when ball became dead
8-2-6; 5-2-1

Seems pretty cut-n-dried,
no room for any umpire discretionary rulings.....

[bluezebra]

'I also think that we can both agree that there is no such thing as "implied time out".'

Think again. If the PU turns to brush the plate, time is out, even if it's not verbalized. If an umpire handles a live ball, time is out.

Bob

[Umpire_Jeremy]

bluezebra,

I couldn't find "implied time out" in my rule book.

Perhaps you could point me into the right direction as I still disagree with it.

I do not agree with time being out when the umpire handles the ball. That is clear.

I think that time should be called when the umpire brushes off the plate, but if its not, I can't see the implication of time being called.