What is the outcome of this?

[cc6]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

Husker,

No, that statement is not correct.

If there were 2 outs at the start of the play, then the appeal of the R1's failure to touch 2B would be a run-nullifying "advantageous apparent 4th out appeal", and no runs would score. Since the R1 was "forced" to 2B at the time of the miss, a proper appeal of his miss is treated as a force out. Since it would be the 3rd out of the half-inning, no runs would score on the play.

JM

Correct. These are the helpful posts from JM I like to see.

[bossman72]

Let's change the OP and say the BR was tagged out instead of R1, then the D appeals R1's miss of 2nd base.

Now we have 3 outs with no runs scoring, correct?

[UmpJM]

bossman,

That's correct.

As long as the out on the play and the subsequent appeal out are on two different runners, both outs stand.

Since, in the OP the R1 was forced to 2B at the time of the miss, his out is a run-nullifying 3rd out of the half-inning.

JM

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by bossman72

Let's change the OP and say the BR was tagged out instead of R1, then the D appeals R1's miss of 2nd base.

Now we have 3 outs with no runs scoring, correct?

Does the BR being tagged remove the force on R1? Does it matter whether the BR tagged out before or after he reaches first? Does it matter whether R1 was forced at the time of the pitch or the time he missed second?