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Old Fri Jul 11, 2008, 11:30am
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Balk Call

I only do summer baseball and I am by no means a "Balkologist". Last night Cal Ripken tournament R1 on first. Pitcher comes set, R1 takes off to second and before the pitch the pitcher spins and throws to second base.

R1 now gets tagged out between 1st and 2nd. I am on bases and I initially call the runner out. Offensive coach questions that it should have been a balk.
I get together with my partner and reverse the out and call a balk because the pitcher did not step back off of the rubber and threw to an unoccupied base.

Correct?
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Old Fri Jul 11, 2008, 11:34am
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Nope, wrong. A pitcher may throw to an unoccupied base if it is to put out an advancing runner as in this situation, or to perform a proper appeal. As long as the pitcher turned in one fluid, continuous motion, then no balk. Had the runner deeked his advance, then you would have a balk.

Last edited by justanotherblue; Fri Jul 11, 2008 at 11:36am.
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Old Fri Jul 11, 2008, 11:48am
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Thanks for clarifying that. Not being a true "Balkologist", I thought I was right but my partner insisted it was a balk so I went with it.
The kid we advanced actually then tried to steal third and was thrown out, so it was a moot point for the out.
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Old Fri Jul 11, 2008, 12:13pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by 3SPORT
Thanks for clarifying that. Not being a true "Balkologist", I thought I was right but my partner insisted it was a balk so I went with it.
The kid we advanced actually then tried to steal third and was thrown out, so it was a moot point for the out.
Amazing how the baseball gods work Everything ends up square in the end

-Josh
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Old Fri Jul 11, 2008, 12:37pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jdmara
Amazing how the baseball gods work Everything ends up square in the end

-Josh
Except now the coaches either believe a misinterpretation of the rule, or think that umpires are idiots.
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Old Fri Jul 11, 2008, 12:57pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by justanotherblue
Had the runner deeked his advance, then you would have a balk.
FED & NCAA are more lenient here. If the throw (or feint) is to drive back a runner (FED) or prevent the runner from advancing (NCAA) it is legal.
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Old Fri Jul 11, 2008, 01:45pm
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that rule interp in the OP is one of the most misunderstood...I won a protest off of an attepted steal of 3B last season...

years ago, i nearly got ejected for arguing a call that was blown by an umpire on a player stealing 3B and my player (F1) threw to 3B and he was balked...
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Old Fri Jul 11, 2008, 02:15pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by MrUmpire
Except now the coaches either believe a misinterpretation of the rule, or think that umpires are idiots.
They already thought the umpire were idiots

-Josh
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Old Fri Jul 11, 2008, 08:54pm
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How to avoid these kinds of situations -

Rule books! Case books! Clinics! Questions for interpreters! Camps! Mentors! Official Forum!



JJ
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