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Old Mon Jul 07, 2008, 02:29pm
In Memoriam
 
Join Date: Nov 1999
Location: Houghton, U.P., Michigan
Posts: 9,953
[quote=Jurassic Referee]
Quote:
Originally Posted by PeteBooth
Follow up question.......from the uninitiated.....

R3 steals home......would make it easily but pitcher plunks batter.....call?

If you felt that the pitcher deliberately hit the batter, would that make any difference to the call?
Hard to imagine, JR.
If the runner will make it easily, then the runner beat the ball and prolly scored before the pitch plunked the batter. No?
...Or else the catcher plays the runner, or the batter interferes ?
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