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  #31 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 09, 2002, 06:21am
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So on the two-out bases-loaded game-winning home run with the score tied, if the runner from 1B misses 2B, he can be called out on appeal and the run will be nullified because that's a force play. If he does not miss second but simply fails to advance and touch it, that's not a force play, and the run scores as long as R3 touches home and the batter touches 1B.
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  #32 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 09, 2002, 08:08am
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Quote:
Originally posted by greymule
So on the two-out bases-loaded game-winning home run with the score tied, if the runner from 1B misses 2B, he can be called out on appeal and the run will be nullified because that's a force play. If he does not miss second but simply fails to advance and touch it, that's not a force play, and the run scores as long as R3 touches home and the batter touches 1B.
Mule:

No, that's not what I said. That's not what authoritative opinion says.

    During a force, any consecutive runner who abandons his advance base is not a force out. However, an appeal of the abandoned base as a missed base can be upheld for an advantageous fourth out. (see second example below). (J/R, 5th ed., p. 24)

Here's the "second example below":

    R3, R1, game tied at 2-2, bottom of the ninth inning, 2 outs. Base hit. R3 touches home plate as the apparent winning run and the batter-runner touches first, but R1 goes to join in the celebration at home plate without advancing to (or near) [my emphasis] second base: technically, R1 is out for abandonment, but this is not a force out, and the run can score. If the defense were to appeal that R1 had not touched second, there would be a force out, and no run. Hence, the umpire should not declare an out until the defense appeals the missed base.

Calling out the runner would result in: (1) The defense thinking no appeal was available; or (2) The umpire alerting the defense to the fact that an appeal was available at second. The statement that the umpire should not declare an out before an appeal is, therefore, simply a mechanics admonition, not a statement of a current "interpretation."

The comment "or near" is merely recognition that a runner who reaches a base is considered to have touched the base unless the defense appeals an actual miss.

Obtaining a copy of the J/R would vastly simplify your learning OBR rules and current practice.

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  #33 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 09, 2002, 08:09am
Gee Gee is offline
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NO.

NO.

If R1 passes second without touching it it would require an appeal to get the force out at second and nulify any runs.

If R1 never reaches second and is not called out for abandonment all the defense needs is a tag of the runner or the base to get the force out and nullify any runs that have scored.

If R1 is called out for abandonment the runs would score and an appeal at second for the force would be needed to nullify any runs.

As was said, the abandonment is not a force. G.
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  #34 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 09, 2002, 08:23am
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Re: NO.

Quote:
Originally posted by Gee
NO.

If R1 passes second without touching it it would require an appeal to get the force out at second and nulify any runs.

If R1 never reaches second and is not called out for abandonment all the defense needs is a tag of the runner or the base to get the force out and nullify any runs that have scored.

If R1 is called out for abandonment the runs would score and an appeal at second for the force would be needed to nullify any runs.

As was said, the abandonment is not a force. G.
Gee:

Very well put.

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  #35 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 09, 2002, 08:29am
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Thank you, Carl and G. I finally understand this play and can sleep at night. Where do I get a copy of the J/R?
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  #36 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 09, 2002, 08:55am
Gee Gee is offline
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  #37 (permalink)  
Old Tue Apr 09, 2002, 12:35pm
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Question Force on HR award?

Carl,

Thanks for your explanation of the JEA treatment of the difference between a live ball award and a dead ball award on a game ending home run. It was very helpful.

On any HR, why is R1 not considered "forced" to touch third? A HR is unique in that it appears to be the only circumstance in which R1 must touch second and third by reason of the batter becoming a runner. The tradition obviously is that one is only forced to touch the "next" base, but I wonder why that is. (As if consistency were a virtue in OBR?)
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  #38 (permalink)  
Old Thu Apr 11, 2002, 09:24am
Gee Gee is offline
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Don't fully understand your question.

With the bases loaded and a walk off home run, all runners, including the B/R, must touch their advance consecutive BASE for the winning run to score.

However, all runners including the B/R, must touch all bases for the home run to count and not be nullified by an appeal. Am I missing something? G.
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