Advice needed on "Hands part of the bat" myth

[TwoBits]

Originally Posted by Dave Reed

Does this help? From the FED Casebook:

7.3.4 SITUATION B: B1 is at bat with a three-ball, two-strike count. He swings at the next pitch and the ball hits his right fist and, without contacting the bat, goes into foul territory. F2 retrieves the ball and throws to F3 who is covering first base and tags B1 with the ball. RULING: As soon as the ball hit the batter it became dead. B1 is declared out. To have the play ruled a foul ball, the ball would have to have hit the bat of B1 before it touched his hand.

Probably not. In the situation the ball rolled foul, and an inexperienced umpire would just call it a foul since, "the hands are part of the bat".

[TussAgee11]

Ask the Coach if the player drops his hands on the ground when he runs to first base

Make sure there are no Jim Abbott's on the field before doing so.

[Rich Ives]

For FED try using 2-40-a

Key words " . . contact with any part of the person or his clothing . . this includes:
a. a pitched ball touching a batter, "


The LL case book "The Right Call" clearly states that the hands are not part of the bat.

[TwoBits]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

For FED try using 2-40-a

Key words " . . contact with any part of the person or his clothing . . this includes:
a. a pitched ball touching a batter, "


The LL case book "The Right Call" clearly states that the hands are not part of the bat.

That might help. Thanks!