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Old Tue May 20, 2008, 12:08pm
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Qucik Question regarding a bunt attempt

I am a basketball official and was asked if a baseball umpire ruled correctly...don't ask me why I was asked...who knows.

Batter has two strike...first base is open. Batter squares to bunt and offers at the pitch but misses completely (absolutely no contact with the ball). Catcher misses the ball...batter runs toward first because of the missed third strike...catcher throw is errant and runner/batter is ruled safe at first.

An arguement ensued that the batter should not be allowed to attempt to advance to first because it failed attempt at a bunt on strike three. Umpire ruled that since there was no contact, it is the same as a swinging strike and batter is allowed to attempt the advance to first because of the drop.

Sounds like the umpire got it right but what do I know. I know the basketball rules (although some coaches would argue that point) but not baseball.

Did they get this right?

Thanks,
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Old Tue May 20, 2008, 12:24pm
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It's a 3rd strike not caught. There is no differentiation between a strike on a bunt attempt or a swing. A rare occurrence this probably is, though.
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Old Tue May 20, 2008, 01:34pm
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The umpire nailed it! Drop third strike. The runner may attempt to advance to first base.

-Josh
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Old Tue May 20, 2008, 02:20pm
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Had the same play happen to me this season and I followed up with the book after the game. The ump got it. One of the things I heard from another ump is that the rule about fouling off the third strike on a bunt was to prevent a batter from standing up there fouling pitch after pitch. But a missed bunt attempt is a missed swing--free to take first if the pitch is dropped.
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