Is a Re-Touch Required?

[cshs81]

R2 and R3.

Groundball. R3 heads for home but stops when the catcher catches the ball.

R2 has touched third base and rounded it when he sees that R3 is heading back towards 3rd base.

R2 does not re-touch 3rd base as he starts back towards 2nd(note: he's now between 2nd and 3rd a few steps off of 3rd base).

However, F2 overthrows 3rd base in an attempt to throw out F3. F3 scores.

F2, seeing the ball in the outfield and that R3 has scored, turns and heads towards home without touching 3rd base.

Is re-touching required since he had already touched third AND since he did not re-touch it on his way back?

[GarthB]

Originally Posted by cshs81

R2 and R3.

Groundball. R3 heads for home but stops when the catcher catches the ball.

R2 has touched third base and rounded it when he sees that R3 is heading back towards 3rd base.

R2 does not re-touch 3rd base as he starts back towards 2nd(note: he's now between 2nd and 3rd a few steps off of 3rd base).

However, F2 overthrows 3rd base in an attempt to throw out F3. F3 scores.

F2, seeing the ball in the outfield and that R3 has scored, turns and heads towards home without touching 3rd base.

Is re-touching required since he had already touched third AND since he did not re-touch it on his way back?

Wow.....take a deep breath....slow down and try again.

Why would the catcher head towards home and if he did, why would he bother touching third?

And how does a firstbaseman score? On the ball field I mean.

[UmpJM]

cshs81,

Yes, a retouch of 3B is required. Since he "passed" 3B on his initial retreat toward 2B, he has made himself "liable" to a proper appeal by the defense at that point in time. If he had touched 3B on his subsequent advance to Home, that would have "corrected" his initial miss under the principle of "last time by", and he would NOT be subject to an appeal..

Since he did NOT touch the base in either advancing or retreating, he is subject to being called out on appeal. (Technically, the defense has two valid appeals on this runner - but that's a moot point.)

JM

P.S. Garth, I was wondering how the CATCHER was able to field a grounder! ;-)

[cshs81]

Originally Posted by GarthB

Wow.....take a deep breath....slow down and try again.

Why would the catcher head towards home and if he did, why would he bother touching third?

And how does a firstbaseman score? On the ball field I mean.

Wow. I really screwed that one up. Too many runners, re-touches, bases, and fielders.

[ironhead17]

It must have been a swinging bunt or a missed squeeze attempt, either way the question was about R2 so why bust his chops........

Thanks for the answer to a good question. If you were the defense. How would you make the appeal?

[cshs81]

Originally Posted by ironhead17

It must have been a swinging bunt or a missed squeeze attempt, either way the question was about R2 so why bust his chops........

Thanks for the answer to a good question. If you were the defense. How would you make the appeal?

Just so we're clear since my OP was screwed up:

R2 touched 3rd and rounded it. Then seeing the other runner re-treating towards 3rd base, he took off back to 2nd base but did not re-touch 3rd base. Then after seeing the throw from F2 sail over F5's head, said runner sprinted towards home without re-touching 3rd base.

[ozzy6900]

Wow, the OP is a mess but beside all that, each runner is required to legally touch each base. When a base is missed one way, it may be touched on the return (albeit Last Time By). Not to worry, though because you have plenty of time to think about it as this is an appeal play by the defense. If they do not appeal, you have nothing to do. Remember that the appeal has to be legal as to the rule set that you are officiating under.

[Shmuelg]

Originally Posted by cshs81

R2 and R3.

Groundball to F6, who throws it to F2. R3 heads for home but stops when the catcher catches the ball.

R2 has touched third base and rounded it when he sees that R3 is heading back towards 3rd base.

R2 does not re-touch 3rd base as he starts back towards 2nd(note: he's now between 2nd and 3rd a few steps off of 3rd base).

However, F2 overthrows 3rd base in an attempt to throw out R3. R3 scores.

R2, seeing the ball in the outfield and that R3 has scored, turns and heads towards home without touching 3rd base.

Is re-touching required since he had already touched third AND since he did not re-touch it on his way back?

I have edited the OP so that it makes more sense.

I say that that R2 does not need to touch 3rd base, as he has already done so. It is somewhat similar to R2 running waaaaay out of the basepath, which he is allowed to do PROVIDING it is not in an effort to avoid a tag, which in this case it was not. As soon as R2 touched 3rd base, he is "in-between" 3rd and Home (even though he is physically on the line between 3rd and 2nd), and can do directly Home.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by ironhead17

If you were the defense. How would you make the appeal?

The same way the defense would make any other appeal.

Originally Posted by Shmuelg

I say that that R2 does not need to touch 3rd base,

Assuming this is baseball and not Calvinball, the runner needs to touch the base on his last time by.

[lawump]

Originally Posted by ozzy6900

If they do not appeal, you have nothing to do. Remember that the appeal has to be legal as to the rule set that you are officiating under.

And now, the post I always post whenever these types of threads come up (why? because these boards are the only places where I can vent and let my frustration out):

Not in South Carolina (FED), baby, because we have no stinkin' appeals. We gotta get it straight in our head right away and call da bum out at the end of the play.

OK, I feel better already.

[cshs81]

Originally Posted by Shmuelg

I have edited the OP so that it makes more sense.

I say that that R2 does not need to touch 3rd base, as he has already done so. It is somewhat similar to R2 running waaaaay out of the basepath, which he is allowed to do PROVIDING it is not in an effort to avoid a tag, which in this case it was not. As soon as R2 touched 3rd base, he is "in-between" 3rd and Home (even though he is physically on the line between 3rd and 2nd), and can do directly Home.

Based on your interp, what if the runner was not just a few steps off of 3rd base between 2nd and 3rd but, rather, halfway? Can he go directly to home from there or would he have to re-touch 3rd base?

[ozzy6900]

Originally Posted by lawump

And now, the post I always post whenever these types of threads come up (why? because these boards are the only places where I can vent and let my frustration out):

Not in South Carolina (FED), baby, because we have no stinkin' appeals. We gotta get it straight in our head right away and call da bum out at the end of the play.

OK, I feel better already.

Really Law? I thought the FED changed that 6 years ago and took that call away from us? How does SOCAL get to stick with it?

[lawump]

Originally Posted by ozzy6900

Really Law? I thought the FED changed that 6 years ago and took that call away from us? How does SOCAL get to stick with it?

Because were South Carolina. This state has a proud history of doing things anyway it wants to. (See Ft. Sumter, 1861 )

Rulebook? We don't need no stinkin' rulebook!

We also don't follow the batter's box rule (you know, batter must stay in the box after a pitch with certain exceptions...)

[jsblanton]

Originally Posted by GarthB

Wow.....take a deep breath....slow down and try again.



And how does a firstbaseman score? On the ball field I mean.

This is funny stuff and will be missed. Don't go!!!