Intentionally dropped ball, or not?

[Yuri10]

Hi,

I'm new to this forum so I greet everybody.

This is a question from a test which caused a discussion between me and other umpires.

Here's the question:

R1 at first and one out. The batter attempts to bunt but the ball goes high for a short fly ball in fair territory in front of the home plate. F2 makes the catch and intentionally drops the ball. What happens?

a) Nothing, the ball is live and in play and the runners may advance at their risk.

b) The umpire calls "Time" and enforces the intentionally dropped ball rule. The batter is out and the runner returns at first.

I'm for answer b, cause rule 6.05 (l) doesn't exclude the bunt, but other umpires are for answer a cause they say this situation is like the infield fly, even if I can't found this on the rulebook.

P.S.
Sorry for my poor english.

[dash_riprock]

B

[TwoBits]

I agree with you. The rule is pretty straight forward. How could anyone argue with you? Furthermore, with R1 only, the infield fly rule doesn't even apply here.

[dash_riprock]

No IFR on a bunt.

[Emperor Ump]

Good instinct Yuri. B is correct.

[TwoBits]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

No IFR on a bunt.

That too.

[archangel]

Some confuse "intentionally dropped" ball as one that the defensive player could easily make a play on, but lets it hit the ground untouched. That example is not an intentionally dropped ball, and is legal. Now if the defense gloves it, and in the umpires judgement, intentionally lets it fall to the ground, well, thats another matter...

[BretMan]

IF conditions are such that the infield fly rule would apply (they are not in your example) AND a ball is batted that actually meets the infield fly definition (a bunt does not) AND an infielder intentionally drops the fly ball, THEN the ball remains live and the infield fly is enforced.

In all other cases, an intentionally dropped ball (with at least first base occupied and less than two outs) results in an immediate dead ball, batter out.