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Old Sun Mar 09, 2008, 02:14am
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Location: Spokane, WA
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Lapopez
Instead of a gapper, it was a straight forward base hit in which there was no chance of B1 trying for or achieving second base. Nevertheless, as you wrote, as he rounds first base, he is obstructed by F3.
Let me understand your scenario...you say the runner was not even trying for second, yet he was obstructed. What, then was he obstructed from?
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