Missed NFHS Test Question

[ManInBlue]

Originally Posted by justanotherblue

Ya know, yes, the ball is dead, but don't you think it's kinda important to know why?! Not all recognize that a bunt can't invoke the IFF, we all should recognize an intentionally dropped ball is an immediate dead ball. Yep regardless the ball should be called dead, so hopefully as an umpire the ball was called dead, but was it for the right reason. It's a fed question, poor as it may be, they rule false as I agree. The key for me in the question is the word bunt. What the Fed intent is only they know. You can use the intentionally dropped ball. Hopefully we all would make the same call, but for which reason. Food for thought.

I don't follow your thought process at all. How do you get false out of this? We know the bunt is not an IFF, so you kill this immediately - thus making the statement TRUE. The ONLY time you would NOT kill it would be when the IFF is enforced. We agree that this sitch is NOT that time.

Let me rephrase it - If I posted on here the following question, how would you respond? "Runners on 1st and 2nd less than two outs. Batter attempts a bunt and pops it up. F1 drops the ball intentionally. Would this be an immediate dead ball?"

If you would answer "yes" to this proposed question, then the FED question is true. All I did was remove the ridiculous FED wording.

I follow your process right up until you get to claiming this to be false. Other than false being the answer that FED gives, I just can't see it being the correct answer, and your logic leads away from it as well.

How can the statement "It is an immediate dead ball when: with R1 & R2, less than two outs, a fielder intentionally drops a bunt attempt that is popped up on the infield" not be true?