What would be your call?

[SanDiegoSteve]

And during the mid 60s, well after Teddy Ballgame left the San Diego Padres, it was known as the Jim Gentile shift here at the friendly confines of Westgate Park, where the slugger played AAA ball near the end of his short career.

Obscure fact: On Tony Gwynn's 1st birthday, Jim Gentile became the 4th player in major league history to hit Grand Slam home runs in consecutive innings.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by canadaump6

R2. McCovey shift being played against the batter (hence no infielder playing even close to third). Hard hit ground ball hits R2. Nobody had a play on it. The ball did technically pass the first baseman, but he was all the way on the other side of the infield, and he was the only infielder it passed. Would this be interference? The reason I ask is because the rulebook says "touching or passing an infielder" and I am wondering if that takes into account passing an infielder who is in the immediate vicinity of the ball, or if it can mean any infielder no matter how far away he is from the ball.

Start with this general principal: A runner is out when he's hit by an untouched fair batted ball in fair territory unless BOTH of the following are true: 1) He could reasonably expect the defense to field the ball before it got to him and 2) A defender playing behind him didn't have a play

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by GarthB

Garth B.
NCAA/ASCAP/BMI/NAACP

Didn't you do some games for the ACLU a while back?

[GarthB]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

Didn't you do some games for the ACLU a while back?

No, that was the AAGL.

[canadaump6]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

Start with this general principal: A runner is out when he's hit by an untouched fair batted ball in fair territory unless BOTH of the following are true: 1) He could reasonably expect the defense to field the ball before it got to him and 2) A defender playing behind him didn't have a play

So if nobody came even close to having a play on the ball, it would not be considered "passing an infielder" even if it did technically pass an infielder?

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by canadaump6

So if nobody came even close to having a play on the ball, it would not be considered "passing an infielder" even if it did pass an infielder?

I think the words in the rule are "through or by" and "by" means "immediately by".

In some rules codes there's the "string theory" -- run a string frm F3 to F4 to F6 to F5 -- if the ball passes the string, then the ball has passed an infielder and the runner is not out.

[MichaelVA2000]

Originally Posted by MrUmpire

I know a few MiLB umpires on the Seaboard. What League did you work and when?

Carolina and South Atlantic leagues. Still work them as needed.

[jimpiano]

Originally Posted by MichaelVA2000

I don't recall claiming to be a MiLB umpire. MiLB, NCAA, ASA, NSA, FED, and PONY are leagues and associations that I have umpired for.

What was your point in relation to the OP?

[jimpiano]

Originally Posted by canadaump6

R2. McCovey shift being played against the batter (hence no infielder playing even close to third). Hard hit ground ball hits R2. Nobody had a play on it. The ball did technically pass the first baseman, but he was all the way on the other side of the infield, and he was the only infielder it passed. Would this be interference? The reason I ask is because the rulebook says "touching or passing an infielder" and I am wondering if that takes into account passing an infielder who is in the immediate vicinity of the ball, or if it can mean any infielder no matter how far away he is from the ball.

Somewhere along the line an umpire has to rely on common sense and not the typed words.

[jimpiano]

Originally Posted by jimpiano

What was your point in relation to the OP?

I apologize. I meant this message for Garth and even that was inappropriate.

[jimpiano]

Originally Posted by ptmac

Have a question from an exam - only OBR, not FED or NCAA.
R3 - 1 out. The batter hits a ground ball that goes down 3rd base line, hits the base and bounces off the base, hitting R3 who is in foul territory before passing or touching an infielder. Is it interference or nothing? OBR references would be nice. BTW, the exam is finished and the deadline for submission has passed, so this is for discussion only, not to help get a better mark.....

There is no difference if a fair batted ball goes into foul territory and strikes a coach, runner, the ball girl, the ball girl's chair, the rolled up tarp, etc, as long as all are in foul territory and are "part" of the game as defined by the rules or ground rules. A ball that strikes the base at third and ricochets into foul ground is fair regardless of the position of the infielders and until it's path is disturbed by someone or something outside of the rules or ground rules, is a live ball.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by jimpiano

I apologize. I meant this message for Garth and even that was inappropriate.

There is a "delete post" feature that would have taken care of it, with no embarassing apology necessary.

[umpduck11]

*******

[MichaelVA2000]

Originally Posted by jimpiano

What was your point in relation to the OP?

It was a reply to GarthB's question when I did respond to the OP. Scroll back.

[umpduck11]

Originally Posted by SAump

* * * * * * *
Looks like as duck, and types like a duck.

It must be a duck............