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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Nov 06, 2007, 03:01pm
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Appeal Still Valid??

Question from another forum:

No outs, BR hits a triple but misses second base. F1, legally disengages the pitching rubber and throws wildly to second. As a result the ball ends up rolling to F8 who then throws to F4 who steps on second. While this is happening, BR runs home on the wild throw.

What is the resulting call? 1 out or 1 run??

Basically, did the error constitute a play and have the defense lose it right to appeal.
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Old Tue Nov 06, 2007, 03:03pm
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you will still allow the appeal as long as you don't make a play on the runner that is stealing home
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  #3 (permalink)  
Old Tue Nov 06, 2007, 03:05pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by tibear
Question from another forum:

No outs, BR hits a triple but misses second base. F1, legally disengages the pitching rubber and throws wildly to second. As a result the ball ends up rolling to F8 who then throws to F4 who steps on second. While this is happening, BR runs home on the wild throw.

What is the resulting call? 1 out or 1 run??

Basically, did the error constitute a play and have the defense lose it right to appeal.
to "err" during an appeal is specifically defined as having the ball go out of play. That didn't happen, so this is still a valid appeal.
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Old Tue Nov 06, 2007, 11:34pm
DG DG is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by tibear
Question from another forum:

No outs, BR hits a triple but misses second base. F1, legally disengages the pitching rubber and throws wildly to second. As a result the ball ends up rolling to F8 who then throws to F4 who steps on second. While this is happening, BR runs home on the wild throw.

What is the resulting call? 1 out or 1 run??

Basically, did the error constitute a play and have the defense lose it right to appeal.
The other guys have answered your question, but what I want to know is why F1 engaged the rubber.
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  #5 (permalink)  
Old Wed Nov 07, 2007, 02:38am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DG
The other guys have answered your question, but what I want to know is why F1 engaged the rubber.
Because most F1 through F9, coaches, players and fans think he has to engage and then step off.
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Old Wed Nov 07, 2007, 09:09am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve
Because most F1 through F9, coaches, players and fans think he has to engage and then step off.
You left out most TV announcers...
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Old Wed Nov 07, 2007, 10:58am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by DG
The other guys have answered your question, but what I want to know is why F1 engaged the rubber.
What is not known here is whether "time" was called in the interim. If so, then the only way to properly but the ball back into play is to have the pitcher engage the rubber with the ball. Then he can make an appeal. If the ball never went dead, then as we all know, he doesn't have to go through that whole rubber thing.
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Old Wed Nov 07, 2007, 01:10pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
to "err" during an appeal is specifically defined as having the ball go out of play. That didn't happen, so this is still a valid appeal.
OBR, he's out on appeal.

NCAA, the appeal is lost and the run scores.
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Old Wed Nov 07, 2007, 03:08pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Publius
OBR, he's out on appeal.

NCAA, the appeal is lost and the run scores.
The NCAA rule:

(5) If the defensive team errs on an appeal play and the ball remains in
live-ball territory, the appeal will be allowed if:
(a) The ball immediately is returned to the base being appealed, and
(b) No runners advance on the misplay. If a runner(s) advances, no
appeal shall be allowed.
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