Phils/Mets: Game ending interference

[Rich]

Originally Posted by greymule

This is the second such call in MLB in the past week, so maybe—whether MLB instructed the umpires to start drawing the line or the umpires are doing so on their own—it's no longer "anything goes" at 2B.

My only problem with the call, as mbcrowder stated, is that there wasn't really a play at 1B. Calling the batter out when there was no chance to get him might belong in Fed, as an extra deterrent to dangerous plays, but I don't know that it should apply in MLB.

If the BR is already across 1B when the runner executes a dirty crash into F4, do we still call the BR out (as in Fed)?

The throw was greatly affected by the illegal slide. Who knows how close the play at first would've been? I saw a Mets fan on another board say that he thinks that the announcers are delusional -- that there definitely was a play at first.

Regardless, should it matter? 7.09(f) only doesn't apply if you decide that there wasn't a play on the batter-runner. Would anyone on a DP pivot be willing to make THAT judgment?