Goofy one tonight

[bossman72]

Originally Posted by SAump

3) Coach wants INT on R1 because F4 dropped the ball and his coach is a RAT.

I think you are missing the point. Here is a sequence of events to hopefully clarify things:

-Loopy liner is hit to F4
-R1 after starting for 2nd, sprints back to first
-F4 drops ball
-F4 throws to F6 to force out R1 at 2nd
-***F6 throws to F3 to try to get the BR at first, but R1 is standing on first base unsure of his status and gets in the way of F3 fielding the throw. (I call no INT on R1 based on my reasons stated in the original post).


The play with the *** is the call in question.

[SAump]

Originally Posted by bossman72

I think you are missing the point. Here is a sequence of events to hopefully clarify things:

-Loopy liner is hit to F4
-R1 after starting for 2nd, sprints back to first
-F4 drops ball
-F4 throws to F6 to force out R1 at 2nd
-***F6 throws to F3 to try to get the BR at first, but R1 is standing on first base unsure of his status and gets in the way of F3 fielding the throw. (I call no INT on R1 based on my reasons stated in the original post).
The play with the *** is the call in question.

Why didn't F4 throw to F3 for a much easier DP? HTBT.
Should R1 have to slide or avoid F3 or make an attempt to avoid being touched by a thrown ball? No.
This play would not be interference as long as R1 made no known movement to swipe at the ball or made no intentional contact with F3 to prevent him from catching it such as swiping at his glove.
F3 would also have to try to make the catch in a manner consistent with a catch from F1 or F2 after a bunt and without the protection of the runner's 3-ft lane.
No interference would be valid unless, in your judgement, R1 acted inappropriately.
I agree with everyone else here who has stated that you made the right call.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by bossman72

I think you are missing the point. Here is a sequence of events to hopefully clarify things:

-Loopy liner is hit to F4
-R1 after starting for 2nd, sprints back to first
-F4 drops ball
-F4 throws to F6 to force out R1 at 2nd
-***F6 throws to F3 to try to get the BR at first, but R1 is standing on first base unsure of his status and gets in the way of F3 fielding the throw. (I call no INT on R1 based on my reasons stated in the original post).


The play with the *** is the call in question.

IT's been asked and answered several times -- it's not interference when R1 is hit by the throw in the play you describe.

[aceholleran]

From the Common Sense and Fair Play Rule Book:

What is R1 doing retreating to 1B?

He is interfering with subsequent play. I don't see any "intent" mentioned in 7.09(d).

Ace

[bossman72]

Thanks guys. I'm glad i got it right on the field.

[TussAgee11]

7.09d (and subsequent comment) has to do with a runner ADVANCING after being retired. I don't see how this situation falls into that comment, as I stated earlier in the thread. That comment seems to me as one for runners who are sliding into 2nd on a double play, etc.

Is there another casebook ruling that makes this situation, and everyone's certainty of no INT if not intentional, more clear? Or is everyone just pulling this interp from 7.09?

I'm just having a hard time seeing how an R1 so stupid has a rule that protects him from INT