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Old Tue May 08, 2007, 11:54am
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Runner goes back to previous base....

Posted on fan forum I lurk on. Obviously the poster is more worried about scoring issues which I know isn't really a umpiring issue, but what if anything should of really happened? Is this all legal? My gut feeling says no but defer to you guys.

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How do you Score something like this??

I was umpiring a youth tournament this last weekend and had an interesting occurance. Situation is a runer at first, no count on the batter. Runner takes off for second, the batter swings and misses, catcher drops the ball then picks it up and fires it to second but not nearly in time. After the shortstop throws it back to the pitcher, the runner inexplicably trots back to first base. The team on defense doesnt notice it and he ends up at first base after stealing second. There was no foul ball called, no reason for him to go back. After a little confusion and a good laugh by his coach (they were up 7 or 8 runs) the kid steals second base again on the next pitch. My question is would he be credited for 2 stolen bases, even though he stole the same base twice???
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Old Tue May 08, 2007, 01:03pm
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No ... he didn't steal anything the first time. Nothing to score the first time - he started on 1st and ended on 1st. Nothing illegal at all in this play.
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Old Tue May 08, 2007, 01:38pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by eyezen
After the shortstop throws it back to the pitcher, the runner inexplicably trots back to first base.
Was F1 on the rubber when the runner returned to first? That's illegal (7.03? -- I don't have my OBR handy), and at least one authoritative opinion has it as an out.
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Old Tue May 08, 2007, 01:42pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins
Was F1 on the rubber when the runner returned to first? That's illegal (7.03? -- I don't have my OBR handy), and at least one authoritative opinion has it as an out.
You're close, Bob. It's 7.01

7.01

Official Notes - Case Book - Comments: If a runner legally acquires title to a base and the pitcher assumes his pitching position, the runner may not return to a previously occupied base.


Evans says this in his notes.


When the pitcher assumes his position on the rubber prior to delivery, no runner may return to a previously occupied base. If he attempts to do so, the umpire shall call "time" and declare him out. Originally adopted to eliminate a trick play and unorthodox strategy, this rule accomplished its purpose. Such shenanigans are unheard of in the modern game. Umpires should be alert and declare out any runner who should return to his previous base after the pitcher has assumed his position on the rubber. This could most logically happen when the runner felt that he "left too soon" on a tag-up and would attempt to return before an appeal was made on him.


Tim.
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Old Tue May 08, 2007, 02:25pm
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I was assuming that he started heading back just after the throw from SS (which is what the OP said), and not after pitcher caught it and then got onto the rubber (which would be considerably later than OP said, and would, as you say, change the situation).
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