Over throw at 1st

[mcrowder]

Originally Posted by LMan

I do note, however, that no one has yet addressed the clear interference by the runner advancing from 2B.

Good point. And we've completely neglected the ball coming in from the other field, and the bucket knocked over rolling between third and home. And ... of course ... what type of shinguard PU was wearing, and how he felt about that shinguard.;

[Rich]

Originally Posted by mcrowder

Good point. And we've completely neglected the ball coming in from the other field, and the bucket knocked over rolling between third and home. And ... of course ... what type of shinguard PU was wearing, and how he felt about that shinguard.;

I'm more interested in knowing how the shinguard felt.

Well, this is fun, but I gots a game this afternoon and a 2 hour drive to get there.

Let's stretch it a bit - R1 on 1B takes off with pitch, B hits between F5 and F6 at back edge of infield, R1 has reached 2B and BR has reached 1B before F6 begins throw to F3 who throws OB. I give R1 home and B/R 3B - 2 bases from TOT.

[greymule]

Let's stretch it a bit - R1 on 1B takes off with pitch, B hits between F5 and F6 at back edge of infield, R1 has reached 2B and BR has reached 1B before F6 begins throw to F3 who throws OB. I give R1 home and B/R 3B - 2 bases from TOT.

In that extraordinarily unlikely situation, yes.

However, if R1 had reached 2B but the BR had not reached 1B, then R1 gets 3B and BR gets 2B.