Batter Missing First Base

[LMan]

Originally Posted by Delaware Blue

How about 4.09 Approved Ruling: One out, Jones on third, Smith on first, and Brown flies out to right field. Two outs. Jones tags up and scores after the catch. Smith attempted to return to first but the right fielder’s throw beat him to the base. three outs. But Jones scored before the throw to catch Smith reached first base, hence Jones’ run counts. It was not a force play.

Yes, but Smith was already at 1B when that play began. That's a clear case of a timing play.

I'm speaking of R3, 2 outs - grounder to F6. The B/R beats the throw but oversteps 1B, (R3 scores in the interim) U1 correctly signals safe at 1B, then there is an appeal at 1B before (now) R1 returns to the bag.

The approved ruling says that it doesn't matter in this case when R3 crossed the plate - a successful appeal of the B/R before acquiring 1B negates the run:

Since Jones crossed the plate during a play in which the third out was made by the batter runner before he touched first base, Jones' run does not count.

Of course, you have to swallow the premise that the B/R did not 'acquire' 1B when he overstepped it, although the conventional wisdom is that he did (hence the initial safe call).

Is this a contradiction?