Batter Missing First Base

[tibear]

If I was to try to simplify the appeal process, there are two situations when appealing a base runner:

1) If a runner was "forced" to run to a base(including first base), if there is a successful appeal on that particular base that would result in the third out in an inning. Any runs which resulted during the play would be erased.

2) If the base being appealed was NOT a "forced" base, ie the runner didn't have to run to the base in question, any run which scored before the successful appeal resulting in the third out in the inning would be valid. This is a timing play and not a force.

Couple of examples:

Sit 1) R1 and R3 and two out. Batter hits a single to RF. R3 scores, R1 on third and BR is on first. Defense successfully appeals R1 touching of second, as a result R3's run would not count because of the force on second.

Sit 2) R1 and R3, two out. Batter hits double. R3 scores, R1 on third and BR on second. Defense successfully appeals BR touching of first, as a result R3's run would not count because of the force on first. (BR was forced to run to first)

Sit 3) R1, two out. Batter hits triple. R1 scores, BR on third. Defense successfully appeals BR touching of second, as a result R3's run would count because there was no force at second base and R1 had touched home plate before the successfully appeal at second.

Would this handle all situations??