Balk question

[BigUmp56]

Originally Posted by PWL

Also the way the OBR rule has always read to me, from the wind position the pitcher cannot have any of his non-pivot behind the rubber before he starts his motion. Don't they use that imaginary line of the back edge of the rubber for placement purposes? Now technically wouldn't there be grounds for a balk if the pitcher stepped off legally with his pivot foot, but his non-pivot foot was already behind the rubber?

A pitcher is not restricted from placing his non-pivot behind the rubber while in the windup.

OBR 8.01 Legal Pitching Delivery

9) In the Windup position, the pitcher’s free foot may be on the rubber, in front of the rubber, behind the rubber, or off to the side of the rubber.

Originally Posted by PWL

I had a situation like this in a game I was playing in a couple of years ago. FWIW, the non-pivot was mostly behind the rubber. The pitcher stepped on the mound with his pivot foot and then barely on with his non-pivot foot. He then stepped back and threw to first from the wind position. I argued for all it's worth that it was balk, but they said it was legal in our rule set. Whatever, that was?

Why was it a balk? Did he step back with the free foot or the pivot foot? Did he simulate his initial motion to pitch as he disengaged?


Tim.