Question on 2006 Umpire Exam

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by tibear

Situation: R1, # outs doesn't matter. Pitcher attempts pick-off at first as runner breaks for second, R1 involved in rundown between first and second and while slidding back into first is obstructed by defensive player without ball. Doesn't the runner automatically get second base or is he only entitled to first?

The first issue is whether to call obstruction. NCAA, I believe, has a tighter criterion, and so lacking the ball (and hindering the runner) would be sufficient for obstruction. For FED and OBR, not so: if a play is imminent, the fielder may block the bag.

But if the obstruction is clear, then the penalty also depends on the ruleset. In FED, runner gets his advance base. In OBR type A, runner gets the base he was trying to get, in this case 1B.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by mbyron

But if the obstruction is clear, then the penalty also depends on the ruleset. In FED, runner gets his advance base. In OBR type A, runner gets the base he was trying to get, in this case 1B.

That's not the correct OBR ruling -- the runner is awarded a minimum of one base on type A obstruction, no matter which direction he was running during the obstruction.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

That's not the correct OBR ruling -- the runner is awarded a minimum of one base on type A obstruction, no matter which direction he was running during the obstruction.

I beg your pardon. That's right, of course. Not sure what I was thinking of, except the so-called "agent intellect" (don't worry, that's from my day job not baseball). Thanks, Bob.