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Old Thu Oct 12, 2006, 12:25am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bluezebra
There is NO way a batter/runner can steal first base.

Bob
I'm sure he was using it as a figure of speech only. It raised my eyebrows when I first read it too.
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Old Thu Oct 12, 2006, 06:44am
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Yes I thought this expression odd, too. Turns out "stolen base" is defined in something known as "Rule 10.08," which I had never read before. Anyway, it seems a stolen base is not credited when a runner advances due to a passed ball, wild pitch, or error. I can't think of any other way for BR to reach 1B on this play, so it doesn't sound as if it would count as a steal.

None of this, however, is part of umpiring, so I could well be wrong.
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