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Old Mon Aug 21, 2006, 10:52am
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Fielder in baseline

Runner on first, first baseman isn't holding him on but is standing directly between 1st and 2nd. Who is in the wrong, if anybody, in this situation? What is the ruling if the runner runs into the fielder? What if it is determined to be intentional?
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Old Mon Aug 21, 2006, 11:07am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lukealex
Runner on first, first baseman isn't holding him on but is standing directly between 1st and 2nd. Who is in the wrong, if anybody, in this situation? What is the ruling if the runner runs into the fielder? What if it is determined to be intentional?
It's not interference or obstruction until it's interference or obstruction. In other words, F3 can stand anywhere he wants (in fair territory). If he obstructs R1 on the way to 2B, then the umpire shall make the award (if necessary). If F3 is in the act of fielding the ball and R1 runs into him, R1 is penalized accordingly. Intentions have nothing to do with the situation unless one judges malicious contact.
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Old Mon Aug 21, 2006, 11:41am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lukealex
Runner on first, first baseman isn't holding him on but is standing directly between 1st and 2nd. Who is in the wrong, if anybody, in this situation?
Nobody is doing anything that is prohibited by rule.

Quote:
What is the ruling if the runner runs into the fielder?
Depends. What is the fielder doing at the time, fielding a batted a batted ball? Interference on the runner.

Maybe the fielder is doing nothing but getting in the way. Could be Type B or even possibly Type A obstruction depending what else is going. Could also be nothing.

Quote:
What if it is determined to be intentional?
Same answer unless, in some codes, mailcious contact is involved.
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Old Mon Aug 21, 2006, 05:00pm
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Say ball is hit, 1st baseman just stands there and is in the way, but not intentionally. Runner collides with 1st baseman, intentionally or not. Two cases, interference?
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Old Mon Aug 21, 2006, 05:07pm
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Where was the ball hit?

Yes, it matters.
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Old Mon Aug 21, 2006, 05:13pm
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Originally Posted by mcrowder
Where was the ball hit?

Yes, it matters.
I'm stealing, right now.
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Old Mon Aug 21, 2006, 05:40pm
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Cool

lukealex,

Let me offer a short "primer" regarding who has the "right of way" in a game of baseball. This will "oversimplify" things, but should get you started in the right direction.

First, on a batted ball, the one fielder who has the "best" play on the ball (in the sole judgement of the umpire) has nearly absolute right of way to go anywhere he wants to go in a legitimate attempt to field that batted ball. If a runner "fails to avoid" this particular fileder while he is in the act of fielding, the runner is guilty of interference and is called out.

If a fielder is NOT "In the act of fielding...", then the runner has the right of way relative to that fielder in legitimately running the bases and if there is a collision, the fielder is guilty of Obstruction, which MAY result in the obstructed runner being awarded one or more advance bases, depending on the particulars of the situation.

If a fielder is making a legitimate effort to field a thrown ball and a runner is legitimately trying to run the bases, it is possible for them to both have "equal" right of way if they were to both attempt to occupy the same spot at the same time. If a collision were to occur in this case, neither party would be guilty of an infraction under the rules of baseball.

There are, of course, a lot of different aspects of such plays that could affect the proper ruling, not to mention different rules in different rule codes that can also come into play.

In your sitch, if the 1st baseman is not in the act of fielding at the time of the collision with the R1, he is guilty of obstruction. Depending on the ruleset and other circumstances, the R1 might be awarded 2B as the result of the obstruction. If, on the other hand, the umpire judged that the runner intentionally "went out of his way" in order to initiate the collision, there would be no obstruction and the runner might be warned (or even possibly ejected, depending on the nature of the contact) for his Unsportsmanlike Conduct.

You might try getting ahold of a rulebook and reading it. All kinds of interesting stuff in there.

JM
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Old Wed Aug 23, 2006, 05:16pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by lukealex
Say ball is hit, 1st baseman just stands there and is in the way, but not intentionally. Runner collides with 1st baseman, intentionally or not. Two cases, interference?
Unless the ball was hit to F3, it's two cases of OBSTRUCTION.

Bob
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Old Wed Aug 23, 2006, 09:11pm
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