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Old Wed Aug 02, 2006, 02:39pm
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I would say, since it was not called a strike orginally (Appeal afterwards), the out would be by the guy thrown out at second, and batter is back up next inning.
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Old Wed Aug 02, 2006, 02:48pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by LLPA13UmpDan
I would say, since it was not called a strike orginally (Appeal afterwards), the out would be by the guy thrown out at second, and batter is back up next inning.
Then you would be wrong.
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Old Wed Aug 02, 2006, 03:10pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by LLPA13UmpDan
I would say, since it was not called a strike orginally (Appeal afterwards), the out would be by the guy thrown out at second, and batter is back up next inning.
Do you have any rules basis for saying such a thing? Or any defense for it if protested?

Let's expand it a bit to further illustrate the point. Make it R1 and R3, a double steal. R1 holds up long enough for R3 to score, and R1 is then tagged. The defense then appeals the swing, and batter is called out. Do you score the run? (Of course not ... because the BR was the 3rd out ... same as if R3 did not exist.)
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