Mechanics At First Base

[Rich]

Originally Posted by pdxblue

If he gets his body over the bag before the throw gets there, "short or long" doesn't matter a lick. He still missed the bag, and you still signal safe.

Show me an official interpretation for this, please.

[UmpJM]

While I am NOT suggesting that this is an "Official Interpretation", here is what Bob Pariseau had to say on the question in a post on another board:

An often asked question is just what it means for BR to "beat the throw" in this case. The Rule of Thumb is that if BR actually TOUCHES 1B, then the Touch of 1B must beat the Catch and Tag for BR to be Safe. But if BR *MISSES* 1B, then the judgment that BR is, nevertheless, Safe is based on when BR's REAR FOOT PASSES 1B. If BR's Rear Foot is not yet past 1B (albeit still in the air) when the throw arrives and F3 makes the Tag of 1B, then BR is judged Out according to this Rule of Thumb. For BR to be judged Safe under this Rule of Thumb, even though having missed the bag, his trail foot must be PAST 1B (albeit possibly still in the air) when the throw arrives and the late Tag of 1B is made

So, following this Rule of Thumb, if BR misses 1B but is still in the act of passing 1B when the throw arrives (and the Tag of 1B is made) you will judge BR Out. But if BR has clearly passed 1B -- in the sense that he not only "reached" it with his lead foot prior to the throw arriving but that also his TRAIL FOOT has passed the bag at least in the air -- then you will call him Safe even though he has not yet touched 1B. He clearly beat the throw to the bag and the defense has not yet made an unmistakeable Appeal.
--Bob

Personally, this interpretation makes eminent sense to me for two reasons:

1. You don't know whether the batter has in fact "missed" the base until his trail foot is passed it - if he "drags" that trail foot and manages to touch the base, it's going to look a little silly to have ruled him SAFE as soon as his lead foot crossed the base - especially if F3 makes a legal tag of 1B prior to the trail foot touching 1B.

2. The BR has not PASSED 1B until ALL of him has passed 1B.

The specifics of the question are not explicitly and unambiguously addressed in JEA, J/R, the MLBUM, the BRD, or the text of the official rules.

JM

[David B]

Originally Posted by CoachJM

While I am NOT suggesting that this is an "Official Interpretation", here is what Bob Pariseau had to say on the question in a post on another board:
Personally, this interpretation makes eminent sense to me for two reasons:

1. You don't know whether the batter has in fact "missed" the base until his trail foot is passed it - if he "drags" that trail foot and manages to touch the base, it's going to look a little silly to have ruled him SAFE as soon as his lead foot crossed the base - especially if F3 makes a legal tag of 1B prior to the trail foot touching 1B.

2. The BR has not PASSED 1B until ALL of him has passed 1B.

The specifics of the question are not explicitly and unambiguously addressed in JEA, J/R, the MLBUM, the BRD, or the text of the official rules.

JM

Thanks Coach, this makes a lot of sense.

It makes no sense to call a runner safe who has not obtained first or passed by first. As stated in your post, the rear foot could touch the bag.

And common sense tells me as an umpire, we aren't going to call a runner safe until we know for certain he is safe.

I'm not an umpire who likes to have to change calls unless absolutely necessary. Waiting to be certain has its advantages on this type of play.

Thanks
David