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Originally Posted by CoachJM
While I am NOT suggesting that this is an "Official Interpretation", here is what Bob Pariseau had to say on the question in a post on another board:
Personally, this interpretation makes eminent sense to me for two reasons:
1. You don't know whether the batter has in fact "missed" the base until his trail foot is passed it - if he "drags" that trail foot and manages to touch the base, it's going to look a little silly to have ruled him SAFE as soon as his lead foot crossed the base - especially if F3 makes a legal tag of 1B prior to the trail foot touching 1B.
2. The BR has not PASSED 1B until ALL of him has passed 1B.
The specifics of the question are not explicitly and unambiguously addressed in JEA, J/R, the MLBUM, the BRD, or the text of the official rules.
JM
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Thanks Coach, this makes a lot of sense.
It makes no sense to call a runner safe who has not obtained first or passed by first. As stated in your post, the rear foot could touch the bag.
And common sense tells me as an umpire, we aren't going to call a runner safe until we know for certain he is safe.
I'm not an umpire who likes to have to change calls unless absolutely necessary. Waiting to be certain has its advantages on this type of play.
Thanks
David