Legal move?

[2rad4u]

OBR, runner on first. RH pitcher is pitching from the stretch.

As pitcher lifts leg runner takes off. Pitcher does the wheel move (without hesitation) to second and throws out runner.

This was a play I had on with my travel team when I know the runner is going.

According to 8.05(d) and the approved ruling,this is legal, yet everyone who coaches (supposedly) think it's a balk for throwing to an un-occupied base.

To me, the rule is pretty clear it is not a balk.

What do you think?

[BigUmp56]

I think you already know the answer to your question. It's just that you're letting a few coaches convince to to second guess yourself.

Here's the Evans Customs and Usage for 8.05(d)

If the umpire is convinced that a runner is making a bona fide effort to advance to an unoccupied base, then the pitcher is not guilty of throwing to an unoccupied base. See 8.05 End Notes Approved Ruling (b).

He then has this play and subsequent ruling.


No outs...3-2 count...runners on first and second. The right-handed pitcher has properly stopped at the bottom of his stretch. As soon as his free foot starts up... each runner breaks for the next base. Without crossing the plane of the rubber with his free foot, the pitcher fires the ball to third in plenty of time to nail the surprised runner. Is this legal.

RULING: This is legal since a play was made. If the runner were not running, a balk should be called for throwing to an unoccupied base.


Tim.

[DG]

The hands are never part of the bat, but throwing to an unoccupied base is sometimes a balk and sometimes not. This one is in the not category.

[mbyron]

C'mon, that's easy:

8.05 If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when:

(d) The pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play.

If you judge that it was a bona fide attempt to make a play (NOT including "driving the runner back"), then no balk.