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  #31 (permalink)  
Old Thu Feb 16, 2006, 10:36pm
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I think the problem with the JEA sitch is that no mention is made of where the runner ended up after he decided he could not advance to second. If he rounded first and stopped three steps toward second and then decided to return to first, he is in jeopardy. If he runs past first, but makes no effort to advance toward second and if he returns immediately to first, he is not in jeopardy.

I had the situation where the runner drew the base on balls, ran to first, stepped on the base and stopped about 6 feet off of first, in fair territory. Without requesting time, he proceeded to remove his ankle protector, and alertly the catcher threw to F3 and they tagged him. I called him out. Thoughts?

Bob P
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  #32 (permalink)  
Old Thu Feb 16, 2006, 11:10pm
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IMHO, I believe that if the batter overruns or "overwalks" first base, then as the MLBUM indicates, he's not liable to be tagged out. If, on the other hand, the batter simply trots to first on a base on balls, acquires it with no valid reason, so to speak, to overrun or overwalk it, but steps off, he can be tagged for the out.

I look at it this way: if his going off the base is part of his original running to first then overrunning it--call it a continuous action play, in a sense--then he's not out if tagged.
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  #33 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 17, 2006, 11:21am
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What about the " returns immediately to first" part of the rule? We have to make a "judgement" about what we consider immediately. Player's can't over-run or "over-walk" 1b and just stand around, IMHO.

Bob P.
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  #34 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 17, 2006, 12:11pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by RPatrino
What about the " returns immediately to first" part of the rule? We have to make a "judgement" about what we consider immediately. Player's can't over-run or "over-walk" 1b and just stand around, IMHO.

Bob P.
You aren't searching for a reason to call an out on a ruling you don't like are you?
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  #35 (permalink)  
Old Fri Feb 17, 2006, 06:35pm
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Rich, of course I would never try to manufacture an out where one doesn't exist. And if I kicked this call, then I learned something. It happens so rarely in FED ball, as BR's don't have protection from over running 1b.

Bob P.
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  #36 (permalink)  
Old Sun Feb 19, 2006, 02:34pm
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The Evans ruling isn't "wrong;" it is simply obsolete. He wrote it back in the early 90's. MLB didn't address the issue until publication in 2002 of the MLB Umpire's Manual, which changed the precedent that had previously been established by Evans' ruling.
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