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Old Tue May 29, 2001, 04:30pm
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Question

I would just like to comment on the great thread we had previously on this topic. I would just like to get one more clarification.

Gee wrote:
There are only two times a runner can get hit by a fair batted ball and not be out. 1. If the ball is deflected by a fielder, including the pitcher, before hitting the runner. and 2. If it has passed a fiedler after he has a reasonable chance to make the play (3 to 5 ft.) and then only if there is not another fielder directly behind the first fielder and the second fielder could have made the play.

I agree with one, but for the moment, disagree with # 2. And it could be because I am not familiar with FED. Are you talking about National Federation of High Schools? Because if you are, then I do know what you are talking about rule-wise and would have to disagree. Otherwise, I could be wrong. But anyway:

From what I see in my rule/case books, the ball only has to "pass" (as in have a reasonable chance, etc.) AN INFIELDER. Emphasis on the word "AN", which means ONE. With R2 on second base, B1 hits a grounder to the left side of the infield. F5, playing in front of the basepaths and in front of the runner, moves to his left to make an attempt on the ball. As he does, the ball goes RIGHT UNDER HIS GLOVE. F6 is behind the runner/basepaths and can make a play on the ball. But before it gets to him, the ball hits R2.

I would rule this a live ball. An infielder definitely had a reasonable attempt to make a play at the ball, but made an error. The second infielder, in my interpretation, is irrelevant in this ruling. Besides, a runner, realistically, should not have to alter his running motion, to allow for a fielder's error. Do you know what I mean?? I am interested in everyone's feedback.
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Zachary McCrite
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