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Old Tue May 29, 2001, 09:11am
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Question

First post, bear with me please. Yesterday doing an 11 y.o. Pony Tournament--2 out, R2 hit by batted ball in the hole before anyone touched it, clearly out. Inning over.
Then I realised, what if there had been one out? What happens to the batter? Does he get first without liability and R1 to second? Thanks-I learn a lot here.
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Old Tue May 29, 2001, 09:28am
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Join Date: May 2001
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Quote:
Originally posted by buddyb03
First post, bear with me please. Yesterday doing an 11 y.o. Pony Tournament--2 out, R2 hit by batted ball in the hole before anyone touched it, clearly out. Inning over.
Then I realised, what if there had been one out? What happens to the batter? Does he get first without liability and R1 to second? Thanks-I learn a lot here.
You got it right. Ball is immediately dead, award batter 1B and any runners forced to advance will also advance.
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Just my opinion,

Hayes
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Old Tue May 29, 2001, 02:20pm
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Join Date: Feb 2001
Posts: 252
Quote:
Originally posted by Hayes Davis
Quote:
Originally posted by buddyb03
First post, bear with me please. Yesterday doing an 11 y.o. Pony Tournament--2 out, R2 hit by batted ball in the hole before anyone touched it, clearly out. Inning over.
Then I realised, what if there had been one out? What happens to the batter? Does he get first without liability and R1 to second? Thanks-I learn a lot here.
You got it right. Ball is immediately dead, award batter 1B and any runners forced to advance will also advance.
I think you are right here. Where it may get confusing is if you have batter interference with R3 attempting to score at home. With less than 2 outs, R3 is called out and the batter remains at bat. With 2 outs the batter is out and the person who follows him will be the next batter in the next inning.
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  #4 (permalink)  
Old Tue May 29, 2001, 04:05pm
Michael Taylor
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You're right but isn't it nice to realize you have to find an answer before it blows up on you.
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