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Fri May 25, 2001, 01:55pm
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G,
Thanks for the reply. Can you explain to me why I am wrong? I agree that no infielder had a reasonable chance on the ball. I am basing my argument on 8.4.2k that states no other infielder has a chance at the ball. Would it not be the same as an umpire being hit on the line after it passes the infielders, regardless of a reasonable chance? Please let me know what you think. Thanks.
__________________
Bob Porter 
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