Interference?

[bossman72]

Had this happen the other day:

R2. Batter hits a grounder to F6. F6 charges and catches the ball. His momentum then takes him a couple steps towards home where he sets to throw. Just as he cocks his arm back, R2 crashes into him. R2 really didn't have much time to react. I called him out for runner's interference.

I then thought about it and have this question:

I know the fielder is protected from fielding a batted ball, but once the ball is fielded and before he throws it, does he have the same type of protection? Was my call right?

Thanks

bossman

[cowbyfan1]

Originally posted by bossman72
Had this happen the other day:

R2. Batter hits a grounder to F6. F6 charges and catches the ball. His momentum then takes him a couple steps towards home where he sets to throw. Just as he cocks his arm back, R2 crashes into him. R2 really didn't have much time to react. I called him out for runner's interference.

I then thought about it and have this question:

I know the fielder is protected from fielding a batted ball, but once the ball is fielded and before he throws it, does he have the same type of protection? Was my call right?

Thanks

bossman

Sounds to me like it was right. F6 was still in the process for making that play. R2 running into him prevented that so interference is the right call. Call R2 out and then call the BR out.

[Matthew F]

...and don't forget to put any other runners back to their base at TOP.

[PeteBooth]

Originally posted by bossman72

I know the fielder is protected from fielding a batted ball, but once the ball is fielded and before he throws it, does he have the same type of protection? Was my call right?

The fielder is protected the MOMENT we as umpires judge that F4 is in the act of fielding the ball and ENDS when:

1. The Fielder throws the ball (follow through) OR

2. The Fielder boots/misplays the ball and the ball is not in his immediate reach.

Therefore, in your play F4 still had protection as he had not yet released the ball.

Pete Booth

[3appleshigh]

I only have R2 out, BR gets first all others return to TOP unless forced??

is this right?

[Carbide Keyman]

If I read the other posts correctly, yes you are in the minority on this one.


Doug

[3appleshigh]

I may be in the minority, but was I right or wrong??

[Carbide Keyman]

As the sitch is written, I believe interference is the right call. BUT, I don't totally disagree with the premise you proposed.



Doug

[gordon30307]

Originally posted by 3appleshigh
I may be in the minority, but was I right or wrong??

You are right.

[bluehair]

Originally posted by cowbyfan1
Call R2 out and then call the BR out.

Why is BR out? In the original sitch:

Originally posted by bossman72
R2 really didn't have much time to react.

This doesn't sound like an intentional act. What justification do you have for calling BR out also?

[gordon30307]

Originally posted by cowbyfan1

Sounds to me like it was right. F6 was still in the process for making that play. R2 running into him prevented that so interference is the right call. Call R2 out and then call the BR out.

Ball immediately dead R2 out, runners return to base at TOP unless forced to advance award BR first. Assuming of course this is not a force play slide situation. If it is call BR out as well. If you feel a double play was prevented by the runners action (not a force play slide situation) you could call BR out as well, however, as I understand it and from what I have read and heard at various camps and clinics this is a huge leap of faith and it should generally not be
called.

[gordon30307]

This doesn't sound like an intentional act. What justification do you have for calling BR out also? [/B][/QUOTE]

Intent is never an issue in the case of interference or obstruction. Makes no difference in how the prescribed penalty is applied.

[3appleshigh]

Sorry, I was calling interference, but not the BR out as was suggested. Thanks for those that saved my mentality, I couldn't see where I was wrong on the penalty.

[officialtony]

Doesn't sound like a double play would have been automatic here. I would have called, interference, dead ball, R2 is out, BR is at 1st. There were no other runners in the original post ( I am presuming R2 means a runner at 2nd since there was no mention of R1 ). BU would have to presume that F6 was going to get both R2 and BR on the play to also call BR out. Without a force, that probaly was not the case.

However, if there was R1 and R2, it sounds like a double play was imminent and BU could easily make the R2 out and BR out call with justification.

Just my humble opinion.

[Carbide Keyman]

3apps,

My sincerest apologies. As was stated in a previous post, most clinicians would agree that it would be a great leap of faith to bang out the BR as the sitch is written. Only if the interference was clearly intentional, might you call the BR out.

Now, I scurry off to the corner to lick my wounds.


Doug