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I don't know where this thread is going, or who is arguing with who, but here's one point:
A few years ago a kid squared to bunt. The pitch was high, the player ducked, but kept the bat in the zone. I called a strike. The coach wanted a ball because the batter didn't offer. My call stood. Later that day, I looked in the fed rulebook. By rule, this pitch should have been a ball. The batter has to make an attempt to hit the ball. Otherwise, REGARDLESS OF WHERE THE BAT IS, there is no offer, and the pitch is a ball. I can see "getting a free strike" by calling a pitch a few inches out of the zone, but those of you who call this one a strike for a freebie don't know the rules well enough. |
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This post started on the subject of a called strike being questioned by an offensive manager and the crew reversing the call upon conferring. Then it wandered (like most posts do) into what constitutes a strike on a bunt. I think I can summarize.
1) You never change a called strike to ball. You would change a ball to a strike if you ask your partner if he went and he says he did. 2) A batter who turns to bunt must make an attempt to actually make contact with the pitch for a swinging strike to be called. |
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