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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Jun 07, 2005, 10:17pm
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Balk Help

Ok, I know this has been hashed out before but I cannot find the thread for the life of me. I'm pretty confident in my ruling, but I have the coach again tomorrow night and I'm sure I will be questioned so I would like the exact rule to back me up.

RHP
R1
Pitcher in set position, stretches, and comes to a stop.
Lifts his non pivot foot (breaking knee) as both knee and foot move towardst third base: (illustration below as seen from home)

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pitcher then turns and throws towards first. I call the balk, place runner on second. Coach comes out and we chat (very pleasantly). He says, "I disagree with you, but we'll go with it for now". He has questioned me about rules before so I want to be ready with the exact rule. The only one that I could find was that once the pitcher makes any motion normally associated with his pitch (which this leg lift is in my opinion), he must continue home without interruption. Is this the rule I'm looking for. If not, please enlighten me because I've been scouring for something else and have found nothing. Thanks in advance.

-Josh

[Edited by U_of_I_Blue on Jun 7th, 2005 at 11:20 PM]
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  #2 (permalink)  
Old Tue Jun 07, 2005, 11:45pm
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Cool

Josh,

First question - what rule code are you playing under?

The move you describe is absolutely, indisputably a BALK! --under any rule code that has balks.

You will hear two schools of thought as to the specific rule/reason this is a balk.

Some will say this is an (following rule cites are OBR) 8.05(a) balk.

Quote:
8.05
If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when_ (a) The pitcher, while touching his plate, makes any motion naturally associated with his pitch and fails to make such delivery;
The thinking is that, in lifting his stride leg to balance, the RHP has made a move that has committed him to the pitch. By changing his move into a pick-off to 1B, he has violated 8.05(a). This works perfectly well in many cases - as long as there is not an R2 and/or R3 at the time. If there is, the RHP has not "committed to pitch" by lifting his stride leg toward balance. He has committed himself to either pitch, make a move to 3B or make a move to 2B. But he has committed himself to not make a move to 1B.

That is why I prefer to think of this as an 8.05(c) balk.

Quote:
...(c) The pitcher, while touching his plate, fails to step directly toward a base before throwing to that base; Requires the pitcher, while touching his plate, to step directly toward a base before throwing to that base.
When a RHP lifts his stride leg toward balance, his free foot moves in a direction away from 1B. (Try this yourself at home and you will see what I mean.) Because he has started to move his free foot in a direction away from 1B, he has failed to meet the "direct step" requirement explicit in 8.05(c). This works regardless of any other runners on base.

These are the OBR rules. The numbers are different, but the principles are the same in other rule codes.

I'm glad to hear that the coach was not a jerk about his lack of understanding of this basic principle regarding balks and legal pick-off moves.

JM

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Old Wed Jun 08, 2005, 07:12am
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Coach JM-

First off, thanks for your response. Our league plays under OBR with FED safety modifications (which have no bearing on balks). I knew that this was a balk, I was looking for the exact rule in which it violates. I figured 8.05(a) applied but wanted to be sure. I wasn't sure on 8.05(c) being applied for this reason:


c) The pitcher, while touching his plate, fails to step directly toward a base before throwing to that base; Requires the pitcher, while touching his plate, to step directly toward a base before throwing to that base.


Is an official interpetation that the pitcher's first move must be towards the base. In this case, after the pitcher raised his leg, he then turned and directly stepped towards the base before throwing.

Once again, thanks very much JM.

-Josh

Regardless, 8.05(a) is what I was looking at originally and you've verified that for me.
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Old Wed Jun 08, 2005, 07:55am
LeftyRef
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Thats a good picture, by the way.
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Old Wed Jun 08, 2005, 07:58am
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And,

The JEA interpretation is that this moves is actually TWO movements. The rasing of the leg and then the turn.

Therefore this is a balk under OBR.

FED ruling is exactly the same.
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  #6 (permalink)  
Old Wed Jun 08, 2005, 08:36am
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The NCAA rule clearly states this is a balk (you can get the exact wording off the NCAA web site), but the rule is the same in all codes.

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