Catcher's interference

[Jay R]

OBR rules.

R3, 0 outs and a 1-2 count on the batter.

Batter starts to swing at the pitch when the catcher interferes with the BR (bat touches the catcher's glove). The batter misses the pitch and the ball goes by the catcher to the backstop. Do you automatcially call time and administer the catcher's interference or do you let R3 score on the passed ball, in which case the manager would have the option of taking the play as opposed to the interference?

[thumpferee]

6.08

If the catcher interferes with the batter with no runners trying to score from third on a squeeze or steal, then the ball is dead, batter is awarded first base and runners who are forced to advance, do advance. Runners not attempting to steal or not forced to advance remain on the base they occupied at the time of the interference.

Had this happen today, how ironic!

[jicecone]

Originally posted by Jay R
OBR rules.

R3, 0 outs and a 1-2 count on the batter.

Batter starts to swing at the pitch when the catcher interferes with the BR (bat touches the catcher's glove). The batter misses the pitch and the ball goes by the catcher to the backstop. Do you automatcially call time and administer the catcher's interference or do you let R3 score on the passed ball, in which case the manager would have the option of taking the play as opposed to the interference?

OBR Rule 6.08c Notes. If the runner is stealing from third, the ball is dead and the runner scores at home and the batter is awarded first. If the runner is not stealing then the ball is dead and the runner remains at third and the batter is awarded first.

[UMP25]

But it sounds like in his scenario that R3 didn't "steal"; rather, he advanced to home as a result of the passed ball.

I'm surprised that no one mentioned the fact that on catcher's interference, it's a delayed dead ball where if the batter-runner and all base runners advance a base, then said interference is disregarded. Here, the B-R swung for strike 3, the ball got away for a "dropped third strike," and R3 scored as a result. Disregard the interference and let the play stand: R3 scores and B-R is at first.

[jicecone]

Originally posted by UMP25
But it sounds like in his scenario that R3 didn't "steal"; rather, he advanced to home as a result of the passed ball.

I'm surprised that no one mentioned the fact that on catcher's interference, it's a delayed dead ball where if the batter-runner and all base runners advance a base, then said interference is disregarded. Here, the B-R swung for strike 3, the ball got away for a "dropped third strike," and R3 scored as a result. Disregard the interference and let the play stand: R3 scores and B-R is at first.

No I didn't miss that part of 6.08c however, I did miss the fact that "the ball got away for a "dropped third strike,"". There does remain some confusing on my part(based upon what is written), if the ball is delayed dead or not but, I think I can clear that up myself. However, making the assumption that it is delayed dead, and that the "play" that followed was the catcher retrieving the ball to make a tag on R3 or a throw on B1, and asuming that B1 was safe at first, then yes I will agree with your (Final Answer). But you do not become a Millionare.

Thanks

[UmpJM]

From JEA on this subject:

"Professional Interpretation: Catcher interference is any physical act which interferes with the batter while he is preparing or attempting to offer at a pitched ball. Interference by any other fielder most likely would be committed by a third baseman or first baseman charging home in play situations as described in Rule 7.07.

A play following interference should be construed to mean a play which results from a ball being batted despite the interference.

A play which develops after an interference and is the result of a passed ball or a wild pitch should be governed by the award of first base to the batter and one base to any runner attempting to steal when the defensive interference occurs. 7.04(d) and 7.07."

Neither J/R not the MLBUM makes any distinction regarding whether the play "results from a ball being batted" but simply speak of allowing any "continuous action" following the CI.

I'm not sure if JEA is in disagreement with J/R & the MLBUM on this point or not. I guess in the absence of anything more definitive, I would be inclined to go with the JEA interpretation.

JM

[jicecone]

Originally posted by CoachJM
From JEA on this subject:

"Professional Interpretation: Catcher interference is any physical act which interferes with the batter while he is preparing or attempting to offer at a pitched ball. Interference by any other fielder most likely would be committed by a third baseman or first baseman charging home in play situations as described in Rule 7.07.

A play following interference should be construed to mean a play which results from a ball being batted despite the interference.

A play which develops after an interference and is the result of a passed ball or a wild pitch should be governed by the award of first base to the batter and one base to any runner attempting to steal when the defensive interference occurs. 7.04(d) and 7.07."

Neither J/R not the MLBUM makes any distinction regarding whether the play "results from a ball being batted" but simply speak of allowing any "continuous action" following the CI.

I'm not sure if JEA is in disagreement with J/R & the MLBUM on this point or not. I guess in the absence of anything more definitive, I would be inclined to go with the JEA interpretation.

JM

Funny you brought that up because it was the part that was confusing to me.

BRD Sit 284 pg.179 "AO-38-284:RODER: A play, for purposes of ignoring catcher interference, does not require a batted ball.(email to cc,2/8/03)".

This along with the language in the 608c , had me wondering about this. If the ball is "delayed dead" then the action after the missed pitch, if considered a play, would result in the batter being on first and the R3 scoring. If it is not a play then the ball is dead, R3 remains and the batter is awarded first.

This does sound different then what JEA says about this. ?????????

[UMP25]

I checked with my friend who was in town this weekend, and he explains that whether it's a play from a batted ball or thrown ball, if the BR and all runners advance, the interference is disregarded. He stated that this is the position of the Joint Committee on Training, with which he was involved.

Hope this helps.

[dddunn3d]

What is the ruling if F2 manages to retrieve the ball and toss to F1 covering the plate, who then tags out R3 trying to score on the passed ball/wild pitch? Does the out stand, or is the ball "retroactively" dead(i.e. R3 returns to 3B and BR is awarded 1B)?

[bob jenkins]

Originally posted by dddunn3d
What is the ruling if F2 manages to retrieve the ball and toss to F1 covering the plate, who then tags out R3 trying to score on the passed ball/wild pitch? Does the out stand, or is the ball "retroactively" dead(i.e. R3 returns to 3B and BR is awarded 1B)?

Since the BR and all runners did not advance a base, enforce the penalty.

The offensive coach can elect to take the result of the play, but would be unlikely to do so in your specific case. The coach might do so if R3 scored while BR was thrown out at first (under the "a wild pitch is a play" interpretation).

[jicecone]

Ok, Carl, mabey you can help on this because as of right now I am tossing a JEA/JR coin in the air to make a call if this happens during a game.

Is the Ball "delayed dead"?

Is the wild pitch considered a "play"?

Is the field too wet for my game today?

Is Tee really mellowing out?

[thumpferee]

Under 6.08

However, if the batter reaches first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batsman, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, the play proceeds without reference to the interference. If catcher's interference is called with a play in progress the umpire will allow the play to continue because the manager may elect to take the play.

The otherwise got me.

IMO R3 scores, BR on 1st.

[jicecone]

Originally posted by thumpferee
Under 6.08

However, if the batter reaches first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batsman, or otherwise, and all other runners advance at least one base, the play proceeds without reference to the interference. If catcher's interference is called with a play in progress the umpire will allow the play to continue because the manager may elect to take the play.

The otherwise got me.

IMO R3 scores, BR on 1st.

I agree, "otherwise" is ambiguious.

What about JEA definition of play vs Roder???? Beats the hell out of me.

Any help out there in umpire land?

[largeone59]

I'll take a stab at this....

So, catcher's interference happens. The coach has two results to choose from:

1) Enforce the penalty. BR is at first. R3 goes back to third since he was not stealing (no squeeze play here).

2) Ignore the penalty. BR is at first (or is thrown out- author doesn't specify what happened to him). R3 scores.

[UMP25]

Keep in mind that the offensive manager cannot take the option if the interference is disregarded. Therefore, if the ball gets away from the catcher on a dropped third strike w/ catcher's interference, and the BR reaches first with R3 scoring, then the play stands--no interference, no option available.