Did It effect the Play?

[Warren Willson]

Originally posted by PeteBooth
We have just completed or still contemplating (depending upon your point of view), F1 (while in the wind-up) stepping back with wrong foot and whether to call a Balk. If I read Papa C correctly, it all depends upon the situation.

--- [snip] ---

Now what about obstruction? Do we rule along the same lines?

No, Pete. The reason you need to make a decision depending upon the situation with the balk rule is because of the clear and unequivocal underlying intent of the rule makers in making that rule, as stated in the End Note to OBR 8.05. That can be enunciated as "...to prevent the pitcher from deliberately deceiving the runner" by "an illegal act."

There is no such clearly and specifically enunciated underlying intent in the codification of the rules on obstruction. Most of that has to be inferred from the rule's history and the occasional casebook comment and official interpretation. What's more, unlike the balk rule where the pitcher's INTENT can be considered, there is no consideration of the INTENT of the fielder required to judge obstruction; only the effect the act is relevant.

Cheers,