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Old Wed Aug 11, 2004, 04:23pm
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Join Date: Apr 2004
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What I should have said was that "Using 7.01 to argue that the runner has aquired or occupies home base is illogical and wrong. The rule states that a runner acquires the right to an unoccupied base when he TOUCHES IT before he is out.

I quotes Dave as saying..."In my opinion, the batter has the right to home, and loses the right when he becomes a runner because his time at bat has ended."

In any event, I think the batter has a right to be in the batters box, the rules state that he has to be there if he wants to legally contact the ball.

The batter has to put the ball in play before he can attempt to reach first. Only when he becomes a runner, BR, does he aquire the right to occupy any base and thus force a runner on first, etc...

That aside, I agree with all of your last post.
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