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This from good authority:
greymule's question: Batter hits a fly ball to short right, runs to 1B, and sees the right fielder apparently make the catch. Batter-runner assumes he’s out, immediately turns around, and retreats down the 1B line toward his dugout. However, the right fielder drops the ball and the umpire is signaling “no catch.” The batter-runner is halfway back toward home when his teammates scream for him to run to 1B. The right fielder picks up the ball and throws to the first baseman, who steps on 1B before the batter-runner arrives. The question is, Is the batter-runner out, or does he have to be tagged once he has touched 1B and retreated? e-mail to greymule from his friend Steve Greenberg: Here is Fay Vincent's response, per Bruce Froemming: Steve-- Remarkably I was correct. The runner must be tagged out. Bruce says once the runner touches a base he must be tagged to be put out. Of course if he has run out of the baseline or has not reached first before he turns away, that is different. But Bruce was quick and crisp and I did not ask to play the game under protest. Over to you. Best Fay "Bruce says once the runner touches a base he must be tagged to be put out." I hope that this is just a quick paraphrase, and that "a base" really should read "first base." [Edited by greymule on Aug 13th, 2004 at 08:17 AM]
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greymule More whiskey—and fresh horses for my men! Roll Tide! |
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I don't know (perhaps through ignorance and lack of resource) of any comment by a baseball higher authority regarding the reinstatement of a force play. Do you? Quote:
The Rules Guys would and did because not all outs at 1st are force outs, even assuming FPAF. With 2 out and R3, fly ball to the outfield, R3 will easily cross the plate before BR is put out. Even under the assumption of FPAF, the out is not a force out. So the Rules Guys needed 4.09(a)(1) as well as (2.) In case you'd like to argue that a caught fly ball is a force out under the assumption of FPAF, note that it would likely be a contentious point (many will claim that a tag out or touched base are the only way to make a force out-- I would add out of baseline to avoid a tag) and so the Rules Guys would put in (1) just for "avoidance of doubt," as some of your legal brethren put it. By the way, I forgot to point out in an earlier post that Section 10 Official Scorekeeper uses the definitions of Double Play and the Force/Reverse Force variants, primarily to keep track of RBIs. The definitions are needed and deny RBIs when BR causes a Force or Reverse Force DP. It isn't important to this discussion, but I am genuinely puzzled: Why do you think those definitions are the among the "worst" writing in OBR? I think they are clear, concise, and free of jargon. Quote:
Well, apparently we disagree on the meaning of "logical." But we're both doing fine regarding name-calling. Dave |
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AH! that explains it: I try real hard not to concern myself with the rules for scorers; maybe I should rethink that attitude. Knowing that there is actually some reason for the "reverse force DP" nonsense may require me to revise my assessment of that passage as among the worst in the book: least helpful to umpires maybe? As a "final word": I just received my 2004 J/R manual, & I'm like a kid w/ a new toy. In Ch. 6, Sec. A, note 12 [pg 49] I find: "...the force out does not apply to the batter-runner ... (by definition he cannot be forced)." At last, an authoritative statement of the PAF not=F principle. I would take it as given that, if it's not a force to begin with, one cannot "reinstate the force", regardless of what retrograde movements one makes on the base path after touching 1st Base, or why one makes them. Cheers! --Carter |
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Of course I accept them as authoritative, and acknowledge that there is no FPAF. All I would ask is that when faced with a person who asserts that B/R is forced to first, we at least allow for the possibility that haven't read (or heard of) J/R, and may have tried to puzzle it out with the OBR. Dave |
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