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  #16 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 26, 2004, 12:45pm
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Question Disengage???

So in the fake to 3rd throw to 1st move, what is considered the proper way to disengage the rubber when accomplishing this play?
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  #17 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 26, 2004, 07:57pm
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Re: Disengage???

Quote:
Originally posted by Kaliix
So in the fake to 3rd throw to 1st move, what is considered the proper way to disengage the rubber when accomplishing this play?
Step with the non-pivot foot toward third, and have the pivot foot follow off the rubber.
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  #18 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 26, 2004, 09:44pm
DG DG is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by Rich Fronheiser
Quote:
Originally posted by DG
Have you ever seen a pitcher use this move at the "upper" level? I don't even remember the last time I saw a 3rd to 1st move at the "upper" level.
I work college baseball. I see it all the time. It even worked once this season.

It generally doesn't fool anyone. Once I see the step to third, I start pivoting to make the call at first base (from the B position).

The purpose of the move isn't to get an out -- it's to see if the batter is bunting or R1 tips that he is going to be running.
In what way did it work? You called a balk, right, because he did not disengage?
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  #19 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 26, 2004, 10:09pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by DG
Quote:
Originally posted by Rich Fronheiser
Quote:
Originally posted by DG
Have you ever seen a pitcher use this move at the "upper" level? I don't even remember the last time I saw a 3rd to 1st move at the "upper" level.
I work college baseball. I see it all the time. It even worked once this season.

It generally doesn't fool anyone. Once I see the step to third, I start pivoting to make the call at first base (from the B position).

The purpose of the move isn't to get an out -- it's to see if the batter is bunting or R1 tips that he is going to be running.
In what way did it work? You called a balk, right, because he did not disengage?
Rich said that the moved worked, which I assume would mean that F1 disengaged and picked off R1, or the batter showed bunt or something else. Why would you think a balk would be called?
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  #20 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 26, 2004, 10:24pm
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Quote:
Originally posted by LDUB
Quote:
Originally posted by DG
Quote:
Originally posted by Rich Fronheiser
Quote:
Originally posted by DG
Have you ever seen a pitcher use this move at the "upper" level? I don't even remember the last time I saw a 3rd to 1st move at the "upper" level.
I work college baseball. I see it all the time. It even worked once this season.

It generally doesn't fool anyone. Once I see the step to third, I start pivoting to make the call at first base (from the B position).

The purpose of the move isn't to get an out -- it's to see if the batter is bunting or R1 tips that he is going to be running.
In what way did it work? You called a balk, right, because he did not disengage?
Rich said that the moved worked, which I assume would mean that F1 disengaged and picked off R1, or the batter showed bunt or something else. Why would you think a balk would be called?
F1 disengaged and R1 had already broken for second and got caught in a rundown.
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  #21 (permalink)  
Old Mon Jul 26, 2004, 10:26pm
DG DG is offline
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Because his point has been that a pitcher making the 3b to 1b move, who does not disengage has balked. On this point he is correct. So how can this move "work" since it's a balk. Now if he makes the same move and in the process losses contact with the rubber then it can work because he can get a pickoff at 1b. Losing contact with the rubber while making his move is not a balk. I see this happen quite often, but in my area I never see the pitcher make the 3b to 1b move with foot on top of the rubber. The pitcher's around here pitch with their pivot in front of, but in contact with the rubber, and always lose contact with the rubber while making this move. And that was my comment earlier, although I used the word "disengage", which Rich took exception to, correctly so.

[Edited by DG on Jul 26th, 2004 at 11:45 PM]
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  #22 (permalink)  
Old Tue Jul 27, 2004, 12:13pm
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Re: Re: Disengage???

Thanks Bob!


Quote:
Originally posted by bob jenkins
Quote:
Originally posted by Kaliix
So in the fake to 3rd throw to 1st move, what is considered the proper way to disengage the rubber when accomplishing this play?
Step with the non-pivot foot toward third, and have the pivot foot follow off the rubber.
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Well I am certainly wiser than this man. It is only too likely that neither of us has any knowledge to boast of; but he thinks that he knows something which he does not know, whereas I am quite conscious of my ignorance. At any rate it seems that I am wiser than he is to this small extent, that I do not think that I know what I do not know. ~Socrates
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