Force Play?

[cbfoulds]

Originally posted by DG
The fact that a BR is not officially considered "forced" by definition of force is not covered, but IMO a BR is forced at 1b. [/B]

Let me see if I get this:
BR going to 1st does not fit the definition of a "Force Play" printed in the rule book; BUT "in your opinion" BR is forced at 1b; SO (wait for it) that makes it a point not covered and therefore under 9:01(c) your opinion trumps the rule book?

As for if you would reverse a run, who knows? If you are making up rules, it is hard to predict what you might do. As for being moot, this thread contains a couple of reasons why BR might retreat - misunderstanding of fair/foul is one; game winning hit is not the only one, and it ain't a game winner if the run doesn't score.

THE POINT IS - no force at 1st base; if BR touches base safely and then for some (ANY) reason "retreats", HE, and not the bag, must be tagged to make the out. If BR is the 3rd out of the half-inning, being tagged after first reaching but then "retreating", any run(s) reaching the plate before the out COUNT. And this point IS specifically covered by the rules, you just have to read, understand, and use ALL of the rules applicable to the situation.

Just because there is not a SINGLE specific INDIVIDUAL rule for a given situation, does NOT mean the situation is not "specifically covered" in the printed rule book.

9:01(c) is a great rule [actually, 9:01(b) is my personal favorite], but it gets used WAY too often by folk what don't know the other rules, to justify deciding a case any damn way they like.

And BTW, am I the only one who noticed that your "run counts, appeal if you like ..." recital started with telling your hypothetical coach that THERE WAS NO FORCE @ 1B? Does this mean that, while you are making up rules, those rulings are different, depending upon the circumstance: force at 1B MOST of the time, but not if it would negate a game winning run? How, exactly, do you figure THAT is good judgment (or use of 9:01(c))?